Do I need to do a CABG

[Shrik]

I am a 67 year old male. Recently i did a Angiography and the report showed:
1) Distal left main with 60% lesion on origin of LAD and Circumflex. 2) 90% ostial lesion on LAD.3) 60% ostial lession on Circumflex non dominant vessel. 4) RCA dominant vessel shows 80% lesion.
Rest all is normal.
Do i need to do a CABG? Can this be cured by medication? Is there any other option that can be considered?
Pls help. Thanks.

[kenkeith]

If medication can relax and dilate the coronary arteries enough to supply sufficient blood to the deficit areas normally supplied distal to the blockage. Angina (chest pain) is associated with the lack of blood/oxygen to the areas of interest, and if medication can control angina, it can generally be assumed medication is sufficient...may not apply if one has diabetes; sometimes there can be ischemia (lack of blood flow) and no associated angina.

If medication does not relieve the pain, a stent may be appropriate.  However, your occlusions appears ostial to the circumflex and LAD.  Both of these arteries branch of the main artery, and those locations a stent may not be possible (stent one vessel will completely close off the other vessel).

If you have anigina (that indicates lack of blood flow) it requires intervention or medication as a lack of adequate blood flow will eventually damage heart cells.

I have completely blocked LAD (collateral vessels provide a natural bypass) and 72% blocked circumflex...a nitrate medication permits exercise without chest pain (going on 5 years).