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1.5/10,000 sex acts

I read in a study (Walt et all, Effect on condoms reducing the Transmission of HSV-2) that transmission of male to female was 1.5/10,000 sexual acts.  This doesn't seem to jive with the Valtrex study?..Or does it?  Any opinions.  
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Avatar universal
Yes if the oral HSV2 infection was established the you would have near full protection as a male from obtaining the virus genitally.
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Avatar universal
Fleetwood, I know the chance is very very very infinitesimal but if someone acquired HSV2 orally do you think they could later acquire it genitally? But would that also be .001% chance you can acquire HSV2 genitally after having it orally....

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Avatar universal
But this varies for every individual. The general number is all you can go by, less than 2% per year is as good a start as any.

But then it is time to let go. Either this relationship with this woman is above HSV2 or it is not. If you have to worry about the risk each time and get tested regularly, then this isn't perhaps the relationship for you.

I can understand that during the getting to know you phase it is a great idea for maximum protection to be used. However if it proceeds to marriage then you have to consider that the sexual part will move to no antivirals or condoms, who wants that. In your lifetime then you would quite likely become infected, but know there is nothing wrong with that, just something you will share with your special person.
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Avatar universal
I keep thinking that transmission rates female to male are extremely low, maybe lower than that suggested by the valtrex study and until I really believe this am having a very hard time having a sexual relationship with her.  But, I did do some math.  Valtrex study 1% given all the precautions and 104 sex acts per year divided by 1% (thats .01) equals 10,400.  That Jives with the Condom study.  I might be able to live with 1/10,400 risk.
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Avatar universal
That study observed a transmission rate of 1.5 per 10,000 episodes of sex from female to male (not the other way around as you suggest) and 8.9 per 10,000 episodes of sex from male to female.

Over a year of 100 sexual episodes, this equates to a 1.5% infection (female to male) and 8.5% (male to female). This is a larger disparity than identified in some other studies. The study includes people that take antivirals and do not and use condoms or do not. The study only analyzed the transmission rate differentials with a estimated condom usage pattern. Hence there is no comparison to the antiviral studies due to the jumble of issues.

There are small numbers involved here, but the study did show a 90% reduction in risk through condom use by infected males. There was no reduction in risk from infected females to males.

My overall understanding of a range of studies is that condom usage reduces risk by 50%. However for infected females to males the risk reduction is about 30% and infected males to females is 70% reduction. I'd be of the view that the study you refer to has results with confidence intervals broadly consistent with this notion.

How is this helping you? I understand you are with a HSV2 infected female. With strict antiviral use and condoms your risk will be of the order of 1.5% annually and in fact may even be less.
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