Dear doctors,
Recently i had a patient who are planning with her pregnancy, i ordered her to check the TORCH lab, the thing that a bit confusing is while the anti HSV 2 IgG ws marked reactive 2,2 and the IgM was also reactive 1,1.
I checked there wasn't any clinical manifestations, and from what she and husband tell me that their have not been in their sexual activity for about 10 months, and they both never feel any sign nor symptomps at all.
By saying that, i need your opinions, does this kind of case should be treated as a genital herpetic patient? And if it's yes, what should be the better option for those couple, should she still have the pregnancy and laboring through c section?
Thank you soo much