I have been married for twenty years. For three years prior to my marriage I did not have sex with anyone but my future wife. In late March of 2008 I received a call from my wife indicating that she had had a herpes outbreak and a positive serology for HSV 2. Within days I was tested, never having had symptoms of my own and my serology came back negative.
My reading indicated that the virus can be dormant for years, perhaps even decades, and events can trigger a long dormant virus to cause an outbreak. However, over the last 20 years we have had unprotected sex thousands of times. With the current knowledge of asymptomatic shedding how likely is it that she had a dormant virus over that period and never shed, and never infect me? She tells me that she also never had sex outside of our marriage.
In the last year and a half, I have believed her, but my reading on shedding has led me to think that it would be highly unlikely for me to test negative after all that time and the previous frequency of sex.
Is it likely that she has had a dormant virus all that time and never shed and I would remain negative with above scenario?