I am a 45 year old man, healthy and fit otherwise. I had somewhat unsafe sex with two escorts a little over a month ago. I performed oral sex on them, everything else (receiving oral, vaginal sex) was protected. I have had a series of weird symptoms ever since including sore throat, feeling "odd" sensation in groin just above where penis attaches (shooting pains; a constant ache like you feel after you eat very hot food as it works through your intenstines), etc. Went to ENT, he checked my nasal/throat with camera, said looked fine, probably allergies or acid reflux causing the sore throat. No discharge from penis or anything like that. Now my question is this. Just to be safe, 29 days after exposure, I had a full STD screening (HIV PCR, Syphilis, Hep B Surface, Chlymydia, Gonorrhea, Herpes 2 IgG type specific HerpeSelect; I have had cold sores over my lifetime so I know I have at least Herpes 1). The day after I took the test, I got this large, red bump on my neck. Probably 1/4 inch in diameter, just under my jawline. It was extremely itchy. The odd thing was it was right over where my throat was sore. It stayed itchy for about 3 days. Didn't ooze like a cold sore, didn't crust over. Now I have a similar itchy spot on my shoulder. I don't know if these are bug bites or what. Anyway...I got my Herpes 2 results back and they were negative. My question is...assuming this was some odd outbreak of the virus in this/these non-traditional areas would the Herpeselect test have been positive at the one month stage, if this was indeed active viral sheding?