Been married for four years, dated for 2. My husband never had anything and he was the only one I was with after my divorce. First husband and I never had anything. I got symptoms days after he had a "pimple" . We are both waiting for test results. He says he never had anything before and has been faithful I know I have been. Are the test results going to tell us who had it first and will it tell for about how long. Is the antibody test the one that tells if you've been recently infected and that you've had it for a long time? This disease is very painful all the way around. He says that he read you could have it and not even know it for many, many years, well then how does he know I didn't get it before I married my first husband and have had it for 20 something years. It's like he's accepted that he was the one who got it from somewhere and I think he knows where. Any helpful info about the test results would be greatly appreciated. Also are there other tests to do some time after to see if the infection was recent or from some time ago?