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Confused about test results

As the title says, I'm confused about m y test results and my diagnosis.  

First, my history: 3 years ago, I had a type specific HSV blood test done that came back as 'equivocal' at .96 or something like that.  I did a follow-up test a week later and it came back as negative--well below the 'equivocal' range.

Now, in January, I received oral sex, and since that time I have experienced a variety of symptoms, though no visible lesions.  Leaving the specific symptoms aside, however, I had a blood test at 5 weeks.  This time, it was an older, not type specific test, which was all that was available to me at the time.  My IgM came back as negative, and my IgG as "Less than 1:10," which I took to be similar (or identical?) to the 'equivocal' result from my earlier test three years ago.  I took a follow-up test at 14 weeks, hoping, or perhaps expecting, the result to be negative.  Instead, the results were identical--negative for IgM, and "Less than 1:10" for IgG.

Here's the confusing part--my doctor told me this means I had a herpes infection a long time ago, but that it is now inactive.  He insists that I didn't pick anything up recently, but that I had some form of herpes a long time ago, which I guess means he thinks that the antibodies have decreased.  

Now, my questions:
1) Does this diagnosis make sense?
2) Is it possible for IgG antibodies to decrease over time?  I thought that once you were positive, you were positive and that's that.  
3) I know from reading posts on this website that the usefulness of IgM tests is questionable at best.  Does a negative result, however, indicate that there was probably no recent infection?  In other words, I know there is a risk of false positives with IgM tests--but is there also a risk of false negatives?
4) Finally, is it possible or likely that I have a somehow elevated level of something that causes blood tests to detect higher than normal, but not positive for herpes infection, levels of IgG?  I was under the impression that if you're positive for IgG, it's a clearly high number, so I'm confused as to why I seem to have results in the 'equivocal' range so often.

Sorry for the long post, but any and all help is appreciated.  Thanks.
4 Responses
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101028 tn?1419603004
The testing was inadequate because it was the older, titer testing that was done - unless of course it's a typo and it should be reading <1.10 and not <1:10.  Those tests have a very high false positive rate and really shouldn't be used any more.  

mspencer -  check your test results to see if indeed you did type them in properly or if it should've been 1.10 and not 1:10.

grace
Helpful - 0
207091 tn?1337709493
COMMUNITY LEADER
Sorry - I don't see where he's had inadequate testing.  His results are inadequate, for sure.

I am wondering about how the lab reports a negative result.  Perhaps your doc can call them, or you can, and ask if they consider anything under a 1.0 to be negative.

AJ



Helpful - 0
Avatar universal
No, I am not in the US, and these are the tests available at my local clinic.  I will be traveling to a more developed city soon, where I could perhaps request a different type of test.

I know that type specific testing is preferred, but I don't really care at this point if I have HSV 1 or HSV 2, since I was shown to be negative for both three years ago, and I know when and where my risky contact was.  So, I figure if I'm positive for HSV (1 or 2), I'll know with reasonable certainty when and where I got it.  

Beyond that, can you clarify what you mean by "adequate testing"?  Do you mean I need a different test, or that I need to wait longer from exposure?  Are there some tests that simply do a better job at avoiding 'equivocal' results?  Is there anything else that can cause my IgG levels to be slightly elevated, and yet not 'positive'?

Thanks in advance!
Helpful - 0
101028 tn?1419603004
You haven't had adequate testing done to determine anything.  Are you in the US?

grace
Helpful - 0
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