hOW PROBABLE IS IT THAT HERPES 1 WOULD BE DORMANT WITHOUT ANY SYMPTOMS FOR OVER 30 YEARS AND WITHOUT WARNING BECOME ACTIVE.
2 YEARS AGO MY WIFE OF 30+ YEARS DEVELOPED AN INFECTION, IN HER GENITAL AREA WHICH TURNED OUT TO BE HERPES 1. tESTS SHOWED THAT HER IMUNE SYSTEM HAD NOT YET DEVELOPED ANTIBODIES, PROVING THAT IT WAS HER FIRST EXPOSURE TO THE VIRUS. SHE ASSERTS THAT SHE HAS NEVER BEEN UNFAITHFUL IN OUR 30 YEARS OF MARRIADE.
ION THE OTHER HAND, MY TEST WAS POSITIVE FOR HERPES 1. HOWEVER, I TOO HAVE BEEN ABSOLUTELY MONOGAMOUS. AND, MY ONLY OTHER SEXUAL ENCOUNTER WITH SOMEONE OTHER THAN MY WIFE WAS 5 YEAR BEFORE I MARRIED MY WIFE. .
I HAVE ACCEPTED RESPONSIBILITY, ALTHOUGH I FIND IT UNUSUAL THAT I HAVE NEVER HAD ANY SYMPTOMS OF STD. NOT EVEN RECENTLY WHEN MY WIFE BECAME INFECTED. IN 30"YEARS OF MARRIAGE WE HAVE HAD UNPROTECTEC SEX WITH EACH OTHER OVER 3000 TIMES AND NOT EVEN A HINT. WHY NOW.? HOW LIKELY IS IT? COULD IT BE ANOTHER EXPLANATION?