Firstly, Grace thank you very much for taking the time to moderate and answer questions.
One more question. In reading thru the forums I noticed an answer from H. Hunter Handsfield, M.D. that states, "Oral herpes due to HSV-2 is rare; almost all cases are due to HSV-1. Therefore, it is rare for someone to aquire genital HSV-2 from oral sex, if it happens at all. In 30+ years in the STD business, I have not seen or even heard of such a case."
So from this is it accurate to say that if the person has HSV-2 that it most likely would not be passed via oral sex, but if they had HSV-1 that it could/would be passed via oral sex? Sorry, to nitpick....just really nervous.
http://www.medhelp.org/posts/STDs/cunnilingus-and-herpes/show/299108
Thanks again!