I need help making sense of this please

[ConfuzedinPA]

Hi all,
I found this site while searching for information about Herpes and it seems like there are a lot of helpful and knowledgeable people here.  I'm hoping that I can get some help making sense of the situation I'm in.

I am a 35/m, and my girlfriend and I have been together for just about a year.  We are monogamous and we regularly have sex (no condoms, other forms of birth control).  We both got tested for all STDs at the beginning of our relationship a year ago and everything was negative.   She has gotten tested frequently during her sexually active life, everything always being negative.  A couple weeks ago, she was having some minor pain/soreness and minor itching in her crotch and went to the OB/GYN.  Her glands around her vagina were a little tender/swollen.  She had no visual sores.  He said that he thought it could be Herpes and swabbed inside her.  Several days later he called her with a positive test result.

She has never had any visual sores, nor any sexual contact with anyone but me for over a year.  I have never had any sores, itching, pain, etc.  The other day, I got a HerpeSelect blood test that is negative (for HSV1 & 2).  I am encouraging her to get a blood test as well because I can't understand how she could be infected but never had any visible symptoms.  If she is really positive, how could she never have a breakout?  If she is infected, how could I not be, since we've had condomless sex too many times to count?

Any help is really appreciated.
ConfuzedinPA

[petal130]

Yes indeed it is.

No problem that you are asking questions. Fortunately once you get all the puzzle pieces aka confirming test results, will it help to sort this out better.

Also, check out the herpes handbook, it's informative.
http://www.westoverheights.com/genital_herpes/handbook/view_the_chapters.html

[ConfuzedinPA]

Thank you both.  I'm sorry that I keep firing questions but I just can't make sense of whats going on.

Is it possible that either she or I have been infected for many years, but never had an out break?

[petal130]

Yes - bacterial or fungal infections mimic herpes symptoms, as could a general dermatitis. As franklinandbash stated, human error is the only thing that would possibly cause a false positive - the culture itself detects the actual virus.

I know it's a bit frustrating having unknowns, but start with the culture and then you can go from there hopefully. Also, double check your early STD test to be sure included herpes testing - specifically IgG type specific testing.

[franklinandbash]

The only error considered with a swabbed test is human error so it is unlikely to be a false positive. There are other problems, particularly with women, that can mimic herpes. Just because someone has herpes, does not mean that their symptoms are caused by herpes. Being seen anytime something genital is happening is always the best way to go so you can figure out what's causing what.

[ConfuzedinPA]

Thanks again for the info.

Are there any other diseases that would present similarly as what my gf was experiencing, but not be Herpes?  Regardless of the type, is it likely that the swabbed culture taken from her vagina was a false positive?

[petal130]

Correct. You can call and ask to speak to the manager of the facility and request it be typed (sometimes they still can). Indeed, it is in the 2010 CDC herpes testing guidelines.

Yes to your 2nd question - again, why it's critical to know the type. HSV2 would no doubt be from genital transmission, HSV1 oral.

It's not that folks who have herpes never have symptoms, it's that they don't recognize their symptoms or perhaps chalk it up to something else.

Your best bet is to call the lab first thing Monday and try to get the culture typed. Let us know how you make out.

[ConfuzedinPA]

Thank you for the information.  Can I ask for some clarification?

I don't know if they OB/GYN typed the culture, I'm not sure if my gf knows either.  Are you saying that it's possible that the test was not conducted up to 2010 CDC standards?

My HerpeSelect test for HSV1 and HSV2 says .05 for both, but you're saying that it's still possible for me to have HSV1 and passed it to her while giving her oral sex?

I've read in other sites that usually the initial flare-up happens within a couple weeks of infection and is usually not a minor episode.  If that's true, how could either of us have it and not had any visible sores?

[petal130]

Did they type the culture? If not, they are not following the CDC 2010 Herpes testing guidelines - let them know that and call back and request they type it.

When a blood test is negative at the same time as a positive culture, it usually means it's a new infection (it takes up to 3 months or so for antibodies to form and detected in bloodwork). The other scenario could be - if  it's HSV1 - is that it was transmitted from oral sex from you. Even if you've never had a cold sore, you still can transmit through viral shedding. AND, even though your test (see next sentence) was negative, unfortunately HSV1 testing misses about 1 in every 10 infections.

Also, be sure you were tested for herpes in your STD screening. TYpically it's not included as part of routine testing.