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I was on valtrex but do to the cost switched to acyclovir.  The period of time I was on 1000mg of valtrex I never had a breakout.  I get them on my hip normally when I am about to menstruate. It has been about 2 months since the switch to 1xday 800mg acyclovir and I have experienced an outbreak.  I don't understand why since they are the same drug?  
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101028 tn?1419603004
you would shed from the area of the lesions when you have them as well as from the entire anal /genital area. in between obvious lesions, you also shed periodically from the anal/genital area.

daily suppressive therapy reduces ob's by 70% on average and reduces shedding by 80% on average.  it really is effective when you are taking the right doses :)
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Avatar universal
To add to the above question.  Does having the meds in my system aid at all.  
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Avatar universal
Since the area I get the infection is on my hip.  When I shed what areas are shedding?
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Avatar universal
Thank you.
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101028 tn?1419603004
acyclovir isn't effective when only taken once a day. you should be taking 400mg twice a day for suppressive therapy.

valtrex is an acyclovir prodrug. when you swallow it, during digestion the body turns it into acyclovir. because of this unique delivery method, you get more active acyclovir available in the body so you don't have to take it as often.

grace
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