Hello, I'm curious about trying to understand the reason behind not recommending testing for HSV if you present no symptoms.
I know HSV-1 is so widely spread that by the time we are 50 it's 90% sure we will have it anyways and that HSV-1 and HSV-2 are practically identical, they just rely on different locations. So HSV-1 by oral sex could lead to genital herpes anyways and viceversa.
But I don't quite understand why CDC and most of GYN don't recommend testing for it unless you have symptoms or another condition that might need that diagnosis.