I don't have the specific test result beyond them being positive. The testing was done by fresh blood draws for both of us.
The most likely situation is this: Your wife has a long established HSV1 infection from her youth. Testing misses about 1 in 10 infections. You have been recently infected during oral sex.
You say your wife has tested positive for HSV1? How and what were the results?
Typing has now identified it as HSV-1. Tests were positive for both my wife and me this time around. We both were negative when initially tested weeks earlier at first sign of the outbreak. My wife has still never had an outbreak of any symptoms.
So, here is one of my thousands of remaining questions . . .
Where did this come from??? We were both negative, now we are both positive weeks later. We've had no other partners for years.
Could this have been lying dormant in one of us for all this time, produced no antibodies, and then popped up in both of us due to an initial outbreak in the one who has had it dormant for years after initial contraction? (Or some other similar hypothesis?) Can first outbreak occur that long after contraction?
FYI--I have also started a new thread about this particular question. I thought I should post it here as well as a continuation/update of this thread.
http://www.medhelp.org/posts/Herpes/Genital-HSV-1-Where-Did-This-Come-From/show/2617778
I guess I have something to hope for then! I'll push to get this typed.
Thanks!
HSV1 on the genitals has an expectation of causing significantly less outbreaks (if any again!) and much reduced transmission rates.
Note I mentioned HSV1 genitally, yes it happens. Where you have the sores is where you have the infection, and only there. It isn't likely you have oral HSV.
Thanks, Fleetwood.
That makes as much sense as anything I've heard. I asked for typing yesterday, volunteering to go back in to provide another sample if necessary. (Of course, it is the weekend, so none of this is happening with the expediency I would like.) If it is HSV-1 contracted orally, is that a "better" scenario? What will knowing the type tell me? I'm still having a hard time getting clear information about the significance of the difference.
I can't speak to the values or types of her testing. All they said was negative IgG and IgM:
"Your tests were negative, including both the HSV IgG (permanent immunity--no prior infection) and the IgM (acute immunity)."
Your wife has definitely had IgG for HSV1 sand HSV2 type specific and they were both negative? What were the values?
Did you receive oral sex in the few days prior to the sores appearing?
One possibility is that your wife has an undetected oral HSV1 infection. This happens about 10% of the time.
If you just cut the culture result, they may still have the sample... ring back and request they test the sample for type.
Also, what is the benefit of typing? What is the difference between whether it is type 1 or 2? Is one worse than the other?
No, they did not type it.
But my question remains: How could it be possible?
No reason for repeat igg blood testing - you have a + lesion culture which gives you your answers. did they type it to know if it's hsv1 or hsv2?