Curiosity Questions on High Risk HPV 16 n 18

[jamya6]

Alot of website state that condoms do not protect males against catching a high risk hpv infection from infected female.

From my understanding n according to my gynecologist hpv is transmitted by skin to skin contact n males are usually the carriers, but my question is, if the penis is cover by a condom n has always been used from start to finish, how is it possible for a male to still catch a high risk hvp.

1.Are scientists saying that the virus is strong enough to go through the condom?
2. My gynecologist said that he has never n his 60 something years of experience ever had or seen a case where high risk hpv 16 or 18 had affected a males thigh, scrotum, or pubic area that was not cover by a condom during sex with infected female  unless it was low risk hpv. nor has it cause them to become a carrier of a high risk hpv n infected another female.
3. Hpv is a virus which means that there is no cure n you will always have it, y do people say that it clear n 2years, n how would infected person know that they r clear.

[jamya6]

Thanks.. that was a very interesting post to read,even though I think that alot of that information provided was towards the Low Risk hpv which causes gentile warts. N I totally get how transmission of a Low Risk hpv can n affect area's That r not covered by a condom like the scrotum,base,n anus. It's the High Risk Hpv transmission that concerns me.. the High Risk Hpv that lays on a women's cervix(internal) that I am concerned with. If the virus is on the cervix n has not caused any cell changes, n she has Protected sex with a male who might not b infected with the virus how is he affected. The only part of the males penis that hits the women cervix the most time during vaginal sex is the head N shaft of the penis, but if the head n shaft of the males penis is Protected (cover by a condom) then how is he still at risk of catching the virus. N how can this protected act still affects the males base n scrotum not covered by a condom if the virus is located on the women's cervix.. if the virus is not transmitted through vaginal Fuilds? I'm not saying that it's possible I would just like to know how? I am majoring n public health n even my Microbiologiest teacher couldn't help me with questions. Even if some how the males base was affected with (High Risk hpv) would the virus spread over the whole penis of does it stay n one area where affected. If it does stay n one area where affect n he has Protected sex with a another how can he spread the virus to the women cervix,  because that's only place where it can B Tested for DNA on a Women not on the outside of the vagina, Unless she has visible warts, which I doubt with a high risk hpv... If I am wrong n which I don't mine being could someone pls give me some reliable information on this transmission frm female to male high risk hpv transmission.  Thanks

[PachoPerez]

I think this link could be useful to you

http://www.medhelp.org/posts/STDs/How-Safe-are-Condoms-at-Preventing-HPV-and-Herpes/show/1025936

It does not answer all your question but it's something.

I'm interested too in this

Once effected at the base, or scrotum does this means that the virus can spread over the whole penis?
I can't find any information on this nor on the transmission mode from female to male high risk hpv only during protected sex.

[jamya6]

Thank you so much for your reply, but I just have one more question. I understand that condom do not protect a males base,scrotum,or buttocks. So MY questions is if a male is infected with Only a High Risk hpv like 16 or 18 at the base of his penis or scrotum can he still passed the virus on to n uninfected female cervix during protected sex if his penis is covered or during unprotected sex?
Once effected at the base, or scrotum does this means that the virus can spread over the whole penis?
I can't find any information on this nor on the transmission mode from female to male high risk hpv only during protected sex.

[veryworried420]

1. Condoms do not cover the base of the penis. Nor do they cover other genital skin like the scrotum and buttocks. Some people who are infected have both high risk and low risk strains. Condoms are great for protection against STDs that exist in fluids like HIV. They suck for STDs that are genital skin diseases like Herpes and HPV.

2. I don't see a question here. Just understand the facts as this link shows

http://www.cdc.gov/std/hpv/stdfact-hpv.htm

3. The term "clearance" means you are not infectious at this time. Most doctors (and the doctors in the Doctors Forum which is not active anymore) think that tiny traces of it cling to DNA forever. This would explain why some women get positive diagnoses years or decades after their first positive diagnosis. Since men cannot be tested, they have no idea if they are positive (unless they had a wart biopsied) or if they have cleared the virus. Men depend on the results of their female partners. Women can get tested and those women who go from being positive to negative clear the virus. Which according to the CDC means that they are not infectious then. For 90% of the infected, they never become infectious again but many people question this stat since it is impossible for anyone to know if a positive diagnosis that a woman gets is from a past infection or a recent one. The CDC claims that the only safe sex is no sex. And that if you have slept with 4 or more partners, you have an 80% chance of being infected with it (20% per partner).

There are some people here who have ONLY had safe sex. So either the virus floats in the air like the flu (doubt it) or your GYN is wrong. I think your GYN is out of touch with reality but if you wish to believe your doctor over the govt, go ahead.

[jamya6]

Any thoughts on this?? Anyone