Hi There,
I know there are a lot of posts about HPV, but I'm still unclear on this. My partner (a male) has HPV and had genital warts a few years ago. He hasn't had any symptoms for about 3 years. If we have unprotected sex am I at risk to get genital warts or am I at low risk since he has not had any symptoms for so long?
I know this might be obvious, but I'm confused about whether the disease can be transmitted no matter what or only if someone is having symptoms.
Thanks!!!