Monogamous relationship between myself and my wife. Married for 20+ years with kids. She's a virgin and I had a relationship before our marriage. She tested with high risk HPV, negative Pap. Her last exam was 4 years ago.
1) Since HPV is STD, is she being unfaithful? Would that happened within the last 4 years as all the prior tests were normal. I did the STD test and all came back negative except HSV1 IgG >> 3.22. I believe those are related to cold sores.
2) I read online saying HPV cannot survive very long outside the body on dry surfaces; however HPV can survive outside the body, and does not require bodily fluids for transmission, possibly surviving longer on wet surfaces. I did many full body massages all these years, did I infect the HPV and transmit to her?
3) Would it be she caught the infection from me 20+ years ago and the present problem is a late recurrence? If yes, why the previous pre-natal exams didn't pick this up?
4) Her HPV is +, DNA hybrid, capture 2. Can someone tell me what does that mean?
I'm lost. Any advice would be appreciated.