My wife and I began dating in 2001 and we were married in 2002. I haven't had sex with anyone except my wife since we started dating in 2001. I was 25 years old in 2001 - prior to my relationship with her I had been sexually active, having had sex with multiple women. My wife discovered genital warts a couple weeks ago, and her doctor just told her yesterday that she has HPV. He also told her that she contracted this infection from me, sometime in the last few months. The doctor stated that I must have cheated on her recently, and I know this to be absolutely untrue. Is there any medical explanation for this? I am the only sexual partner my wife has ever had, but I know that I have been faithful. I am anxious, confused, and frustrated.
Her doctor is wrong. You must have gotten infected before you met your wife. You either infected her then or over the years or very recently. Women who get tested for HPV can go from being negative to postive without even having sex in between tests. The tests themselves cannot detect the virus if the levels are very low and women are told they are negative. Medical science knows that people can have this virus for many years before they show symptoms or have positive results. She should see another doctor. There are no certainties with HPV and if her doctor doesn't know this, shame on him/her.
That's exactly what I told her after researching HPV for hours yesterday. Her doctor also decided to do a biopsy, so now she is dealing with the pain caused by that procedure. She is going to call this morning to see if she can meet with him today to discuss what we talked about last night. He's a good doctor who I have a ton of respect for (delivered all 3 of our children), but I know he's got to be misinformed on this one. My marriage is at stake here, and I already feel horrible knowing that I'm the one who infected her at some point.
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