I recently had a pap smear, told it was abnormal for ACSUS and HPV +. I never had a bad smear and always tested HPV negative. I have not had sex for over two years and have only been with my husband, who was a virgin like me. We always used condoms as well, so I am stumped as to where the HPV came from. We both came from religious families where sex doesn't happen until after marriage. I am 46, wondering if it has something to do with perimenopause. We have been married for 12 years. Only other thing that has happened is that I have had to have transvaginal ultrasounds, last one was a year ago. The transvaginal ultrasounds have happened after the last HPV test- any chance that could have caused HPV?
For some reason, some women get a positive result years or decades after exposure. Some people think this is due to a lowered immune system. If you smoke cigs or excessively drink or live an unhealthy lifestyle, your immune system can be impacted enough to get a positive result. Pregnancy lowers an immune system too. Assuming you were a virgin when you met, you obviously got it from him.
Whether it from was sex with him 10 years ago or recently will never be known. You cannot play detective with this virus. If you love and trust him, then do not dwell on it. There is no test for men and he has to assume that he has what you have and that he gave it to you. Recover your health and understand that there is only one man on this planet that has what you have and that you can have unsafe sex with. Your husband. If this isn't good enough for you then be prepared to inform future partners which won't be easy. Most sexually active men are clueless about this virus and think they don't have it. The only way to have a normal sex life again without having "the talk" with future partners is to stick with your husband. I'm a man and I know this may sound sexist but it is realistic. Recover your health and get tested regularly. Be glad you can be tested!
My husband told me he had sex with his exgirlfriend 20 yrs ago that was before I married him. I don't understand why the dr told me I have hpv now after they found out I have abnormal cell. I Married him more than 10 yrs and I never have abnormal papasmear and this is first time show abnormal papsmear. If I have hpv should I have 10 yrs ago not until we got married almost 10 yrs. so I really don't know how I get hpv from ?
This is not an easy question to answer precisely. Most of the time, a positive diagnosis is from a recent (4-6 months) encounter. For some unlucky women, they can get a positive result from an encounter they or their spouse had years/decades ago (pre-marriage). The odds are very low for this but not zero. If either of you were not virgins when you met, this long ago encounter cause is still a possibility. Even if it was oral sex performed on him decades ago. Although, the odds are certainly better it is from a recent encounter. Also, there are cases of hand sex or frontage (rubbing of genitals) spreading it but this is rare too.