Hello Dr.,
I was recently diagnosed with a high risk HPV (unknown as to which one, my doc only has the technology to say it's high risk, not which strain). My pap smear came back slightly abnormal. Because I had an abnormal pap smear and tested positive for HPV she has stated I must have a colopospy (sp?) and a biopsy.
My questions are:
1) My husband and I began having sex in late 2007 and I am just now having abnormal pap smears. We have both been faithful, so does this mean my husband's infection was dormant and I didn't get it until a later date since it has been 2 years and I still have HPV? (I've read it should be gone by now, but it's not!)
2) If my husband is still actively infected as well, am I increasing my chances of getting oral cancer if I continue fellatio with him? (besides the fact that all I'd be able to think about while giving it to him is sucking on a viral infection...sick!!)
3) If I have dysplasia and I get it all scraped out and then have future pap smears and they come back normal and test free of hpv, am I completely clear from ever worrying about it again as long as my husband and I only have sex with each other for the rest of our lives?
Thanks so much. Even though I know this is a "common" virus...it is still very disheartening to know I have it. I never thought I would get an STD since I saved myself for my husband. I wish he had done the same!!