A Summary of the Problem with my Wife:
I believe that my wife, who had suffered from postpartum psychosis after the birth of our last child, had an increased genetic susceptibility to affective illness as a result of hormone changes at menopause, especially with abrupt hormone changes that appear to have occurred because of her UAE and hysterectomy (induced menopause). COULD THIS BE TRUE?
My hypothesis is that the UAE (uterine artery embolization), to eliminate her fibroid, inadvertently targeted her ovaries and the subsequent hysterectomy caused a severe case of affective illness that has again greatly impacted her health and our life together. So, what never should have happened again, affective illness (postpartum psychosis after the birth of B____) has happened again as a more severe case of affective illness because of the combination nontargeted embolization of the ovaries from the UAE and induced menopause (hysterectomy). The only reason she had the hysterectomy was to eliminate the fibroid, because the UAE did not work. I believe the combination of these two procedures brought on affective illness worse than the postpartum psychosis she had a decade ago.
Why are the ovaries left during a typical hysterectomy? Primarily for maintaining hormone production, hence no need for HT per her Kaiser doctors. But, loss of ovarian function after UAE was not taken into account because of microspheres or PVA particles flowing into organs where they were not intended to go. Kaiser’s Informed Consent states: “There is a 1 – 2% risk of compromise of arterial flow to the ovaries, which would lead to ovarian failure”. From my research, though, I have found that “the incidence of premature ovarian failure after UAE for symptomatic fibroids was recently reported to be as high as 14%”. My wife was never checked to verify that her ovarian functions had not been compromised by the UAE. This should have been done, especially before hysterectomy. Neither had comprehensive hormone testing been performed to establish a baseline should any kind of hormonal treatment be necessary because it was assumed it would not be. I am convinced that her ovaries were compromised because of the UAE as detailed in . . . . . DOES ANYONE HAVE AN OPINION?
I had a medically induced menopause..horrible side effects untill i went on hrt..my ovaries where taken also thougth..
I have been a member here for a while and have answered alot of hysterectomy/ menopause questions..you are definatley on to something..case after case of women whose intact ovaries are effected by the removal of the uterus..hormones are effected..if this is a corellation to her past phycosis I dont know and ultimatley it doesnt even matter..what you need to do in my opinion is insist that her hormone levels be tested..she is likely low on estrogen..there is a wonderful fairly new product that many of us use and like its called the vivelle dot its an estrogen patch thats applied to the lower abdomen 2 or 3 times per week easy to use .
I dont think you really need a baseline of what her hormones where prior to surgery there is a normal range that is standard for all women ...bioidentical is 4 sure the way to go..I went almost a bit crazy till I got my hormones right it took 2 adjustments now I dont hot flash have normal sexual desires am not depressed...I feel like the old me..good luck and Im sure youll get more responses..Stay away from Premarin its old stuff and not bioidentical.
Although this is an old post, I wanted to say there is a correlation between the hysterectomy and menopause and I hope that she is better now! There is a direct correlation between low estrogen levels and psychosis because it happened to me regularly before going on BHRT!
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