Hi all,
Okay, so I'd just like to know the possibility of pregnancy based on the following scenario:
I had sex with my fiancee twice last night, both times with a condom. Due to a previous health condition, I am unable to take birth control or Plan B as necessary, so condoms are my only choice.
The first time, the condom worked perfectly fine and nothing went wrong. We then had sex again a while later (and my fiancee did NOT urinate prior to this second encounter), and the condom broke. We realized it almost immediately and he had not yet ejaculated, so we stopped right away. What are the chances of me getting pregnant based on this encounter? I know failing to urinate after a previous ejaculation can increase the amount of sperm in pre-ejaculate slightly. However, does it make a difference that I was giving him oral (unprotected - no risk of STDs whatsoever) prior to the second time having sex? I'm not sure if that could somehow destroy some of the sperm left over from his previous ejaculation.
So, again, is it very likely that I'm pregnant based on what I've just described? I have very regular cycles, and my last period began on 2/25, so I am due for my next one to start on 3/25. I already have sore breasts, etc. and I have for about a week now, which is typical for me in terms of my usual cycle, PMS symptoms, etc.
Obviously I know there's a slight risk of pregnancy, but I don't want to overly stress about it. I'm just going to patiently wait for my period on 3/25 - especially since I have normal cycles, so I should have already ovulated at this time. I had some clear discharge early last week, so I'm guessing I already have ovulated. I'm also having knee surgery in about two months and I will need to take a pregnancy test prior to that, so I don't want to be surprised. I mean, I don't necessarily want a baby right now, although I would be more than happy to have one as we are both financially secure with full-time jobs, etc. I was just hoping we could put off a baby until we both finish up graduate school.