Background: 32-yr old male. Received oral sex from a 'massage therapist' while on vacation in Caribbean. Within the week began to experience symptoms including discomfort at tip of penis, not burning or discomfort but also not 'normal' feeling during urination,and a clear-liquid discharge. My thoughts from reading around that this was probably Chlamydia. Within the next several days I went to a clinic and was tested for Gonorrhea and Chlamydia, concurrently being prescribed (and taking) Azithromycin and Cefixime.
Ok so the symptoms began to die down, eventually going away within another week. I had had sex with my girlfriend upon return from the Caribbean (once) but prior to treatment or obvious symptoms, and had sex with her again after treatment had concluded. Within a day of doing so, symptoms had returned, though in a much more subdued manner. (I'll note now also that after I called for the STD test results, results were negative)
At present, there is occasional clear seepage, usually after sex, but most notably there is a strong odor in urine. This is now three months after initial exposure/incident.
My questions are essentially, am I right to suspect it may have been a false negative on the Chlamydia result? If I have infected my girlfriend, would a 1-day turn be long enough to be re-infected myself? Could this be a bacterial infection with similar symptoms to Chlamydia but not an STD per se itself? Or, could the infection have spread elsewhere?
I had a prostatitis infection in my early 20's once (which essentially means nobody knew what was up), and for the last 2-3 years have suffered from a condition best explained via this link:
http://www.************.com/Semen_With_Gel_Like_Substance_t56600.html
...so I am wondering whether I might be experiencing a UTI or bladder or prostatitus infection (since I seem prone to complications in that region) following the Chlamydia (if I had it),or if it might still Chlamydia if that's what is in play.