History: My wife and I have been together for 10 years - we don't use barrier contraception since she uses an IUD. I've had recurrent oral cold sores for as long as I can remember (which are presumably HSV-1). Until just recently, my wife had never had one. We have always tried to be careful not to have oral sex while I have a sore. She is on Roaccutane for an unrelated skin condition - side effects include drying and thinning of oral/vaginal mucosa. Recently, her Roaccutane dose was increased.
Last week she started to experience vaginal irritation, muscle aches, and cracked lips, which we put down to Roaccutane side effects. These subsequently got worse, erupting after ~3 days into cold-sore type blisters/ulcers in both oral and genital locations. She's subsequently been diagnosed with probable herpes (awaiting the culture results).
Questions:
1) She seems to have simultaneously contracted it orally and vaginally - is this unusual? Could I have passed it to her in both locations simultaneously, or is it more likely that it was passed on in one location and then auto-inoculated to the other? I understand spreading HSV from one location to another is quite easy during the primary outbreak.
2) Why would it suddenly happen after 10 years? Could the Roaccutane treatment have lowered her defences, or did we just finally get unlucky?
3) What can we do to lessen the severity of the initial attack, and reduce the chance of recurrent attacks (a) vaginally and (b) orally?
4) Am I at risk of contracting it genitally (assuming we're not idiots and don't have sex while there are any active lesions or within a week afterwards)? Should we start using barrier contraceptives routinely to prevent this?
5) (semi-unrelated) I'm very prone to mouth ulcers - any trauma from hot food / over-vigorous toobrushing almost always turns into a painful flat erosion. Could these be internal herpes lesions, or are they just apthous ulcers?