Welcome to the STD forum.
Whatever is going on has nothing to do with the sexual encounter with another man 2 years ago. Gonorrhea never lasts 2 years, and rarely causes urethral infection without symptoms -- i.e., if you had gonorrhea back then, you would have known it.
Your symptoms are possibly consistent with an STD like urethritis (NGU or chlamydia), but they are more suggestive of a possible prostate gland problem -- especially if the "discharge" indeed was urine. "Testicular" discomfort commonly is referred pain originaing in or near the prostate gland. At 35 you're a bit young for that, but old enough for it to be a reasonable possibility. Also, "chronic prostatitis" -- more accurately known as the chronic pelvic pain syndrome -- is a possibility for such symptoms. (If you google that term you'll see information that may describe your symptoms pretty well; start your reading with the excellent Wikipedia article that should show up near the top of the google hit list.)
Of course the other possibility is that you really do have NGU or chlamydia, but that would require that your wife caught it first -- which I assume is unlikely, although you don't say anything about her sexual lifestyle. I'm sorry your doctor apparently treated you with clarithromycin without testing your for STDs -- probably it wouldn't have made any difference, but it makes it impossible to ever know for sure, unless and until your wife also is tested.
Another slim possibility is that you had NGU due to normal oral bacteria, if your wife performs oral sex on you. Because of the normal bacteria aspect, NGU sometimes can appear in monogamous settings. However, that usually would have caused a definitely abnormal urethral discharge; and in any case would be unusual to pop up many years into a relationship. But if that's the problem, the clarithromycin will clear it up.
Those comments cover questions 1-3 and 6. Question 4 also partly addressed above: 2 weeks of clarithromycin will clear up chlamydia and probably gonorrhea, but gonorrhea is a virtual impossibility for the reasons above. Question 5: syphilis is not a consideration here. Having had sex with another man, it wouldn't be a bad idea for you have a syphilis blood test somewhere along the line, but the chance you were infected by a single episode of oral sex is extremely low -- and if positive, it would not explain your symptoms.
Bottom line: Read up on CPPS, and discuss that and the prostate issue with your provider. If you are convinced your wife couldn't have picked up an STD, then you can put traditional STDs aside; this has nothing to do with the event of 2 years ago.
Best wishes-- HHH, MD
Hepatitis viruses through oral sex: Probably zero risk.
Disregard chancroid. It is almost the rarest of all STDs in the US, probably fewer than 100 cases per year in the entire country. Even in most developing countries, where chancroid used to be common, it is disappearing.
It is time to drop your obsession with STD as a potential explanation for your symptoms.
That's all for this thread.
What is the likelihood of getting Hepatits A, B, or C through unprotected oral sex (penis to mouth)?
Also is chancroid transmitted through oral sex too? I've noticed a sore recently at the base of the penis--not well defined or big, but it hurts a bit.
Staph epi is just about the most common of all bacteria on everybody's skin, in our mouths, and various other body orifices. Entirely normal.
Without treatment, gonorrhea usually clears up in men within 2-3 months and in women within 6 months. Reexposure makes no difference; the same immune response that clears the infection prevents it from being bounced back and forth within couples.
Thank you Doctor,
I appreciate the input. I will check up on chronic prostatitis, maybe that's more the issue here. Do you know if that affects fertility? I assume it might, but I'm not sure.
My wife has never had sex outside of the marriage, so that's definitely not an issue. I got tested for syphilis about 6 months after the encounter and the antibody test was negative. I assume that test is extremely accurate for diagnosing syphilis.
When I got the swab test to check for gonorrhea/chlamydia they were able to culture Staphylococcus epidermidis. Is this something I need to be concerned about or is it just normal bacteria?
Just out of curiosity, on the average without treatment how long does it take for gonorrhea to resolve itself within a couple where both people are infected? The constant re-exposure from the other person won't perpetuate the infection?
Thanks for the help.