Welcome to the Forum. You raise a number of important issues and I will try to help. It is absolutely reasonable and appropriate to assume that you and your wife are or have both been infected. Before I comment on where the infection may have come from, let me state that her PAP smear is doing just what it is expected to do. It has detected cellular abnormalities which MAY be cancer precursors, allowing she and her doctors to go forward managing them (the cellular abnormalities) in a way that will allow her to avoid cervical cancer and its consequences. This is, from my perspective, a great thing.
So, where did this come from? For better or worse, at present HPV is a "fact of life" and most people have it or will have it at some point in the future. Not all HPV infections are sexually transmitted. There are over 100 different types of HPV. for instance, the HPV types that causes plantar (foot) warts or warts on other parts of the body rarely (please note, I said rarely, there are, for better or worse, no absolutes when it comes to the biology of HPV) cause genital infections. Of the types of HPV that are transmitted through sexual contact, it is important to realize that these infections (unlike gonorrhea or chlamydia for instance) can be transmitted without engaging in sexual intercourse. It is also clear that monogamy does not prevent HPV acquisition. Further, of women with 1 sexual partner, following 1rst sexual intercourse), HPV infections occur at a rate of about 15% per year. Fortunately, despite this fact, only a tiny minority of persons with HPV get the consequences of infection (primarily women and primarily cancer and pre-cancerous lesions).
I hope these comments help you to sort this out. EWH
The studies I quoted do not differentiate as to monogomy or not. Certainly however, mutually monoomous couples who have had contact without intercourse with other partners can have acquired HPV.
Yes, the infection can persist for years. EWH
Hello Doctor,
Thanks for such a quick response. I have a couple of questions, you said:
"Further, of women with 1 sexual partner, following 1rst sexual intercourse), HPV infections occur at a rate of about 15% per year."
Does that include women with 1 sexual partner whereby the partner has not had any previous sexual partners? (i.e myself)
Also, is it really possible that this could have been contracted 15 years or so ago?
Thanks & apologies for the extra questions.