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HSV 2 transmission, medication & fertility
Doctor- I have had HSV2 for approx 10 years. I experience outbreaks very infrequently and take Valtrex daily. Unfortunately my husband recently tested positive for HSV2, though to date has never had any "symptoms" or flare-ups of any kind. So we'd like to know:
-Should he take valtrex as a preventitive measure against flare-ups?
-If he masturbates and afterward touches his face/mouth, could he spread the std to his mouth?
-If I give him oral sex, can I contract herpes of the mouth as well?
-Though he has never had a flare-up, what are the chances his HSV2 could affect his fertility? We are trying to get pregnant.
-What is the chance he may never experience a flare up?
Thank you.
-Should he take valtrex as a preventitive measure against flare-ups?
-If he masturbates and afterward touches his face/mouth, could he spread the std to his mouth?
-If I give him oral sex, can I contract herpes of the mouth as well?
-Though he has never had a flare-up, what are the chances his HSV2 could affect his fertility? We are trying to get pregnant.
-What is the chance he may never experience a flare up?
Thank you.
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
Welcome back. I'm not familiar with any HSV-2 tests that give results in that numerical range; 5-6 are pretty much the top values with the most commonly used tests. And I don't know what IV means. I suggest you contact the doctor's office where the test was done, or the lab, and ask them the interpretation of the test. Also get the brand name of the test and assure whether it's a truly type-specific test for HSV. With the additional information, I may be able to say more.
Or you could have a repeat of the original test in the original laboratory, as I suggested above. Or just go to the Western blot, which will sort things out for certain.
Or you could have a repeat of the original test in the original laboratory, as I suggested above. Or just go to the Western blot, which will sort things out for certain.
Dr. H
We received new results done at another lab- not the western blot results. They seem to be significantly different however. Is it possible results can vary so significantly? First results showed HSV 2 result = 1.41. New result is showing HSV 2 value is 15.10 IV. I don't understand how they can be so different. Is it still worth getting the western blot done?
What does the IV mean after the value? Thanks for any help.
We received new results done at another lab- not the western blot results. They seem to be significantly different however. Is it possible results can vary so significantly? First results showed HSV 2 result = 1.41. New result is showing HSV 2 value is 15.10 IV. I don't understand how they can be so different. Is it still worth getting the western blot done?
What does the IV mean after the value? Thanks for any help.
Thank you Dr H- We are going to move forward with the HSV Western blot test. How divine it will be if he is in fact negative!! We appreciate you help & input.
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
Thanks for the additional information. It is quite likely your husband does not have HSV-2 after all (as explained in the link I provided above). His positive result is in a very low range. There are two ways to sort this out: first, he could just have another routine test; if that result is negative (below 0.9), you can safely conclude he is not infected. Alternatively, you could go straight to the HSV Western blot test, the ultimate gold standard in confirming low-positive HSV test results. WB is done only at the University of Washington clinical laboratory, in Seattle; the doctor's office or laboraotry will know how to send a specimen to them.
Mycoplasma hominis has no effect on fertility; it's a normal bacteria in many persons' genital tracts, found in at least 50% of healthy people. I don't think very many gynecologists recommend treatment for it, but yours may have a special reason. You shouldn't be worried about your fertility on account of that test result. Your reseach is correct: M. hominis is entirely unrelated to your herpes.
Your HSV-2 infection is probably genital only. Therefore, the virus is not in your salliva and cannot be transmitted that way. Such transmission may sometimes occur with oral HSV-1 infection, but even that is rare.
Mycoplasma hominis has no effect on fertility; it's a normal bacteria in many persons' genital tracts, found in at least 50% of healthy people. I don't think very many gynecologists recommend treatment for it, but yours may have a special reason. You shouldn't be worried about your fertility on account of that test result. Your reseach is correct: M. hominis is entirely unrelated to your herpes.
Your HSV-2 infection is probably genital only. Therefore, the virus is not in your salliva and cannot be transmitted that way. Such transmission may sometimes occur with oral HSV-1 infection, but even that is rare.
Also, what role, if any does Mycoplasma Hominis play in fertility?
Dr Handsfield, thanks for your response & help.
I am not sure the brand of test that was done but we can call the clinic and find out. What we know is that his numbers show:
IgG - HSV1 = .91
IgG - HSV2 = 1.41
He was tested for other stds but all else was negative. What do you think of those numbers?
We would also like to know if there is any way to transmit the herpes via saliva? or sharing a bottle of water, etc with someone? My thought/experience is that this is not possible but we'd like to confirm. How else (if at all) besides intercourse would either one of us be able to transmit the disease to someone else?
Because we are trying to get pregnant, my doctor ran additional tests on me and I just found out I tested positive for Mycoplasma Hominis. My doc prescribed antibiotics for both my husband and I. Does this have any connection/correlation to the herpes (could one trigger the other)? My research suggests they are unrelated but I'd like to confirm.
Thank you.
I am not sure the brand of test that was done but we can call the clinic and find out. What we know is that his numbers show:
IgG - HSV1 = .91
IgG - HSV2 = 1.41
He was tested for other stds but all else was negative. What do you think of those numbers?
We would also like to know if there is any way to transmit the herpes via saliva? or sharing a bottle of water, etc with someone? My thought/experience is that this is not possible but we'd like to confirm. How else (if at all) besides intercourse would either one of us be able to transmit the disease to someone else?
Because we are trying to get pregnant, my doctor ran additional tests on me and I just found out I tested positive for Mycoplasma Hominis. My doc prescribed antibiotics for both my husband and I. Does this have any connection/correlation to the herpes (could one trigger the other)? My research suggests they are unrelated but I'd like to confirm.
Thank you.
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
I forgot to paste in the link to the thread about HSV blood tests. Here it is:
http://www.medhelp.org/posts/STDs/IGG-Test-Result-Confusion/show/593272
http://www.medhelp.org/posts/STDs/IGG-Test-Result-Confusion/show/593272
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
Welcome to the STD forum. I'll try to help.
I'm glad to hear your suppressive therapy has been successful, at least in controlling your symptoms -- even if it may not have prevented transmission to your husband.
My replies below assume your husband's diagnosis is correct. However, the standard antibody tests are not always reliable, especially if his result is not strongly positive. If you would like, feel free to provide more detail about his test and I can help judge the likelihood he indeed has HSV-2. The key information is the specific brand of test (e.g., HerpeSelect, Captia) and the numerical value of his HSV-2 result, as well as the HSV-1 result if that test also was done. But as I said, the following responses assume he is infected:
1) I doubt he needs suppressive therapy with Valtrex (or any of the anti-herpes drugs). There are 2 reasons to take it: to prevent outbreaks and to prevent transmission to partners. Since you already are infected, he can't infect you again; couples don't "ping pong" their HSV infections back and forth. And so far, he isn't having outbreaks. So I see no need for him to be treated. (Of course I'm assuming he has no other partners who might be at risk.)
2) Self-infection to a new area of the body is called auto-inoculation. It occurs almost entirely during the initial herpes outbreak and is rare in longstanding herpes. Just as you have not infected your own eyes, mouth, etc over 10 years of having genital herpes, neither will he.
3) As I said, people are immune to catching a new infection with the same virus type -- and for sure they are immune to re-catching the same strain they already are infected with. No risk.
4) Genital herpes has no effect on fertility, in either men or women, and regardless of whether there are symptomatic herpes outbreaks.
5) It's hard to predict whether he might ever notice symptoms. Probably about 50:50, if indeed he is really infected. This is one reason it would be good to know his test results and determine for sure whether he really has HSV-2.
In case you are interested, here is a thread that goes into detail about reliability of HSV blood test results, and in particular why it would be good to know the numerical value of your husband's test result.
Regards-- HHH, MD
I'm glad to hear your suppressive therapy has been successful, at least in controlling your symptoms -- even if it may not have prevented transmission to your husband.
My replies below assume your husband's diagnosis is correct. However, the standard antibody tests are not always reliable, especially if his result is not strongly positive. If you would like, feel free to provide more detail about his test and I can help judge the likelihood he indeed has HSV-2. The key information is the specific brand of test (e.g., HerpeSelect, Captia) and the numerical value of his HSV-2 result, as well as the HSV-1 result if that test also was done. But as I said, the following responses assume he is infected:
1) I doubt he needs suppressive therapy with Valtrex (or any of the anti-herpes drugs). There are 2 reasons to take it: to prevent outbreaks and to prevent transmission to partners. Since you already are infected, he can't infect you again; couples don't "ping pong" their HSV infections back and forth. And so far, he isn't having outbreaks. So I see no need for him to be treated. (Of course I'm assuming he has no other partners who might be at risk.)
2) Self-infection to a new area of the body is called auto-inoculation. It occurs almost entirely during the initial herpes outbreak and is rare in longstanding herpes. Just as you have not infected your own eyes, mouth, etc over 10 years of having genital herpes, neither will he.
3) As I said, people are immune to catching a new infection with the same virus type -- and for sure they are immune to re-catching the same strain they already are infected with. No risk.
4) Genital herpes has no effect on fertility, in either men or women, and regardless of whether there are symptomatic herpes outbreaks.
5) It's hard to predict whether he might ever notice symptoms. Probably about 50:50, if indeed he is really infected. This is one reason it would be good to know his test results and determine for sure whether he really has HSV-2.
In case you are interested, here is a thread that goes into detail about reliability of HSV blood test results, and in particular why it would be good to know the numerical value of your husband's test result.
Regards-- HHH, MD
You are reading content posted in the STDs Forum
Herpes spreads by oral, vaginal and anal sex.
Herpes sores blister, then burst, scab and heal.
STIs are the most common cause of genital sores.
Millions of people are diagnosed with STDs in the U.S. each year.
STDs can't be transmitted by casual contact, like hugging or touching.
Syphilis is an STD that is transmitted by oral, genital and anal sex.
