OK, I'm 18 years old, male, bisexual. A couple of days ago, a guy played the head of my penis full of my own pre-seminal fluid with his hand (with the possibility of his hand full of his own pre-seminal fluid). I also bit his nipple, and I'm not sure if it bled. (Can I get HIV if it bled?) Two days after that incident, I noticed clear to cloudy white liquid on my blue underwear. I'm not sure if it was just pre-seminal fluid or a penile discharge (a sign that I might have an STD). After that, I'm not sure if it happened again because I kept on using white underwear and I don't seem to notice anything (as far as I observed). Until just today, when I used my blue underwear again, and I noticed that there's only a little white liquid again.
My questions are:
1.) What should the color of a penile discharge be if it's indeed an STD?
2.) Should a discharge ALWAYS be accompanied with pain during urination to indicate that it is indeed an STD?
3.) Do you think it was indeed an STD?
4.) Am I at risk of any STD given the situation above?
5.) Should I get tested for any STD (please state, if any)
The encounter you describe is not one that would put you at risk for an STD causing urethral discharge. Masturbation, and this is what you describe does not do this, penetrative sex does. on the other hand, if you have had other exposures, this may reflect an infection and warrant evaluation.
On to your questions:
1. The color of an STD-related discharge can vary. While gonorrhea is typically yellow and pus-like and NGU tends to be clear, there are exceptions and to try to assess the presence of an STD based on color will often be wrong. If you are concerned, you should seek evaluation for gonorrhea, chlamydia and NGU. These however are unlikely from the exposure you describe.
2. No you can have only discharge without pain on urination and still have a STD.
3. See above, form what you describe, probably not from that encounter.
5. Not a bad idea if you have not been in the past year, as screening if for no other reason.
6. HIV should not be a concern from this exposure either.
Last June 2007, I had protected anal sex and last May 2008, I gave a guy an oral sex.
Just December last year, I got tested for HIV and Syphilis - all results came back negative (thankfully), but I did not get tested for gonorrhea and chlamydia because I didn't experience any symptom since that exposure last May 2008.
Doctor, based on my input, do you think I'm now STD-free? I don't want to get tested, if possible, because testing here in the Philippines is really expensive and STD's here are really rare so I don't want to take the risk.
Also, how will I know if it was just a pre-seminal fluid or an abnormal discharge? It "looked" like the normal pre-seminal fluid because it's not that "thick" and its colored white, but I want to hear it from you.
I wish I could tell you if this is normal pre-ejaculatory fluid or not but I cannot. Your risk was, as I mentioned, low risk. IOdds of having acquired an STD from the expsoure you describe are very, very low and therefore, if you didn't feel the need to be evaluated before, you need not now. I am not trying to be evasive on this, just to provide the facts. I hope this helps. EWH
If it is indeed an STD (Chlamydia or NGU), should the discharge be "thick"? Because just recently, I experienced a painful urination and I'm not sure if it's just UTI or an STD symptom. My other question is: if the UTI result came back positive, does it mean that it's just UTI, and NOT an STD?
You are playing games trying to figure out if your discharge represents infection or not. I cannot answer that. I suggest you re-read my earlier responses and decide whther you should be tested or not.
As for a UTI - these are very uncommon in men under age 40 and when men are told the have a UTI, they more often have STD, often NGU.
This will end this discussion. Further questions will be deleted without comment. EWH
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