Hello,
I had unprotected sex (oral and vaginal) on 4/10 and ~8 days later noticed a clear urethral discharge. It is overt before and after I urinate. After the last drop of urine dribbles out, the discharge begins forming a viscous globule that doesn’t shake off easily yet is easily wicked into a piece of toilet p. Also, it evaporates quickly as it never leaves a stain on my boxers. It has been very intermittent.
So I was Rx’d doxycycline b.i.d and given a swab to test for chlamydia because no discharge could be milked. I was impatient and was told to swab before starting the Rx so I just swabbed inside the urethral opening. It came back as normal flora but the discharge persisted.
2nd visit: I was given a 1 g Azithromycin and 1 g Tinidazole. I noticed the discharge became more profuse when under antibiotics. I felt it dripping almost constantly throughout the day.
3rd visit: the doctor decided to treat it as gonococcal and gave me IM ceftriaxone. This had the same effect as before where the discharge noticeably gets worse (more flow, less intermittent but no change in color/consistency). I had no systemic symptoms, no urethral burning or tingling), no difficulty urinating. I did notice right-sided non-tender, movable inguinal lymphadenopathy in terms of a palpable node that can exert pressure when lying down but that has passed.
I spent ~ a week waiting because I know urethritis will resolve with time and the antibiotics so far seem to cover the likely culprits. The discharge became barely noticeable except before and after urinating. Last visit: I was given ciprofloxacin (1 g b.i.d.) for two weeks. Ever since starting, the discharge has been constant with the only respite being before taking the day's first dose. I'm ~ halfway through the Rx and want to know whether I should stop. Is the discharge a sign of the colony’s last throes? Are the antibiotics wiping out commensals that have been keeping the infection subacute? I would love any insight and advice.