I'm so very confused now.
17 days ago, received about 2 mins. of unprotected oral from csw. I then did oral to her for about 1 min. Then, protected sex. I am a male. She was very adamant about using a condom when penetration occurred AND, after the brief oral. I was drunk, and think the condom was intact the whole time. The way she was acting, a condom was important to her.
Symptoms: I think, mild burning, though on and off. Irritation at tip of penis on and off. Sometimes I feel like my urethra is burning even when I'm just sitting there, but this could be due to anxiety.
I haven't seen a white discharge, BUT, maybe a clear one today. I see fluid (clear) in the urethra when I pull open the opening if anything, discharge has been unnoticeable. AND, I HAVE OFTEN had prostate (semen like) discharge upon bowel movement. I've had this prior to today and nearly every time when bowel movement. So, that leaves me confused as to if I've ever had a discharge.
BUT, today, am having pink eye like symptoms. I know you said it's rare, but I looked on line today and apparently, many think pink eye caused by Chlamydia is common. I know it's pink eye because of "heavy" eyelids, crusting and blurry. It started in one and is now in both.
What makes this hard, is that I've divorced with kids and one recently had pink eye. So, you can see my confusion. Was it that, or possible Chlamydia?
So, do you think I have Chlamydia?
I don’t have a lot of money, so I can't really afford a lot of testing.
Would the discharge occur spontaneously? Is it clear, or cloudy? Is it white? Is mild tingling even when not needing to go a sign? Is the burning very painful? We used a condom. Is it possible to still contract it from her via her doing oral or me on her and then protected sex? Does the pink eye and time of exposure and possible slight discharge today lead to the conclusion of chlamydia?
Please lend your expertise? Thank you.