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Leasons Learned...But Too late?
Hello Doctors
I have a few questions that might be hard to answer. Basically this is my history, about 8 months before I met my current Girlfriend I had condom protected sex with an older CSW (She was probably in her late 30s or mid 40s). Anyways, at the time I didn't have a partner and I just forgot about the episode. However, when I met my girlfriend I started having (after a few months of dating) unprotected sex with her. Aprox 6-7 months after we started having sex my girlfriend started complaining about her "ovaries" or "uterus" or "something" (her words) hurting and aching? after about a month of this ongoing discomfort she decided to get it checked out at her Gyno. Her Gyno examined her and informed her that it was not her ovaries but her lymph nodes that are hurting, (apparently her gynacologist examined the whole are and when she touched her lymph nodes it hurt). Anyways, her gyno told her not to worry and that maybe shaving the area caused this irritation of the lymph nodes. At the same time she told her that she would check for "infections" and if there were any she would prescribe her some antibiotics.
A week later my girlfriend told me that she had no infections and her doctor just prescribed her steroid.
This all happened at least 6 months ago, however at that time I was STD ignorant and tought nothing of it, but now thinking back I wonder if I gave her an STD and that was the cause? what do you think?
another question: before a month before I met my girlfriend but after my last sex with the sex worker I did have a surgery and afterwords I was on antibiotics for about a week straight. I have no idea what kind of antibiotics they were. I am wondering however if I had some unrecognized STD would those antibiotics have cleared it? I guess if you would know what sort of antibiotics are prescribed after a surgery?
my girlfriend is in her early 20s and I am as well.
I have a few questions that might be hard to answer. Basically this is my history, about 8 months before I met my current Girlfriend I had condom protected sex with an older CSW (She was probably in her late 30s or mid 40s). Anyways, at the time I didn't have a partner and I just forgot about the episode. However, when I met my girlfriend I started having (after a few months of dating) unprotected sex with her. Aprox 6-7 months after we started having sex my girlfriend started complaining about her "ovaries" or "uterus" or "something" (her words) hurting and aching? after about a month of this ongoing discomfort she decided to get it checked out at her Gyno. Her Gyno examined her and informed her that it was not her ovaries but her lymph nodes that are hurting, (apparently her gynacologist examined the whole are and when she touched her lymph nodes it hurt). Anyways, her gyno told her not to worry and that maybe shaving the area caused this irritation of the lymph nodes. At the same time she told her that she would check for "infections" and if there were any she would prescribe her some antibiotics.
A week later my girlfriend told me that she had no infections and her doctor just prescribed her steroid.
This all happened at least 6 months ago, however at that time I was STD ignorant and tought nothing of it, but now thinking back I wonder if I gave her an STD and that was the cause? what do you think?
another question: before a month before I met my girlfriend but after my last sex with the sex worker I did have a surgery and afterwords I was on antibiotics for about a week straight. I have no idea what kind of antibiotics they were. I am wondering however if I had some unrecognized STD would those antibiotics have cleared it? I guess if you would know what sort of antibiotics are prescribed after a surgery?
my girlfriend is in her early 20s and I am as well.
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
Neither chlamydia nor gonorrhea is a plausible explanation -- for a whole host of reasons. Your wife's symptoms don't fit, you probably would have had symptoms (for sure for gonorrhea), the antibiotics probably would cure thm, and even if not, both those infections clear up in their own (in men) within a few weeks or 3-4 months.
Please accept the reassurance I'm trying to give you. Forget the STD idea. And stop obsessing about your anxiety-producing commercial sex event. It is unrelated to your wife's health issues.
That will be all for this thread.
Please accept the reassurance I'm trying to give you. Forget the STD idea. And stop obsessing about your anxiety-producing commercial sex event. It is unrelated to your wife's health issues.
That will be all for this thread.
Also, I am a heterosexual, so I am guess LGV would be unlikely?
Thanks for the response. To answer your question I am in the US. However, I was more worried about Chlamydia or Gonorrhea because and this is an interesting story that might be applicable to a lot of readers in this forum.
When I started dating my girlfriend my main (constant worry) was Genital Herpes, back then I thought that was the only STD that mattered because it was not curable. Furthermore, I stupidly assumed that Chlamydia and Gonorrhea would cause obvious symptoms that I was recognize (I never had any). Therefore, when I started I only took a blood test for herpes, which came back Negative for HSV-2. I also took a syphilis blood test (because they just offered it with the Herpes blood test) that also came back negative. Really Herpes had consumed my thoughts back then.
Fast forward months I accidentally read about PID (hence my tittle) and that threw my world in a spin (again) and I have been consumed with the thought of infecting her with chlamydia or gonorrhea and causing her lymph nodes to hurt. So I am guessing from your response that those STDs don't cause enlarged lymph nodes?
I have no idea what infections she was tested for, I asked my girlfriend and she also doesn't know. I am hopping her gyno tested her for Chlamydia or Gonorrhea.
Would my antibiotic treatments have had any effect with Chlamydia or Gonorrhea? I know this is a vague question but what do you think?
When I started dating my girlfriend my main (constant worry) was Genital Herpes, back then I thought that was the only STD that mattered because it was not curable. Furthermore, I stupidly assumed that Chlamydia and Gonorrhea would cause obvious symptoms that I was recognize (I never had any). Therefore, when I started I only took a blood test for herpes, which came back Negative for HSV-2. I also took a syphilis blood test (because they just offered it with the Herpes blood test) that also came back negative. Really Herpes had consumed my thoughts back then.
Fast forward months I accidentally read about PID (hence my tittle) and that threw my world in a spin (again) and I have been consumed with the thought of infecting her with chlamydia or gonorrhea and causing her lymph nodes to hurt. So I am guessing from your response that those STDs don't cause enlarged lymph nodes?
I have no idea what infections she was tested for, I asked my girlfriend and she also doesn't know. I am hopping her gyno tested her for Chlamydia or Gonorrhea.
Would my antibiotic treatments have had any effect with Chlamydia or Gonorrhea? I know this is a vague question but what do you think?
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
Welcome to the STD forum. Bottom line: most likely this isn't an STD problem, and I doubt it has anything to do with your commercial sex exposure several months ago.
Enlarged, inflamed lymph nodes in the groin are an occasional STD symptom, but usually in special circumstances that seem unlikely in this case. It can occur with herpes, but only with obvious painful genital blisters/sores; syphilis, but rarely as the only symptom; a rare STD called lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV), which can be viewed as a special class of chlamydial infection -- but LGV is vanishingly rare in the US and Europe, except in gay men. Further, none of these is likely to have occurred in you without symptoms. On top of all that, your commercial sex event was condom protected -- and condoms work. Finally, if syphilis or LGV were the problem, most likely your antibiotics would have cured it. So all those issue argue against any STD, and against any connection between your partner's symptoms and your commercial sex exposure.
Having said that, it would be good to know exactly what infections she was tested for. Also, where are you? The US or elsewhere? I'm a little surprised at corticosteroid treatment. In general, it should be possible to find a specific diagnosis for enlarged/inlamed lymph nodes, and it is atypical to give steroids before then. Such treatment could mask other symptoms that might be a clue, or might interfere with additional diagnostic tests. Not to be too skeptical, however: Her doctor may have a very good reason and I'm just speculating from a distance. But if there is any doubt, this might be a situation for a second opinion by an internal medicine specialist or infectious diseases expert.
In any case, I see no likelihood of an STD. I hope this helps. Best wishes-- HHH, MD
Enlarged, inflamed lymph nodes in the groin are an occasional STD symptom, but usually in special circumstances that seem unlikely in this case. It can occur with herpes, but only with obvious painful genital blisters/sores; syphilis, but rarely as the only symptom; a rare STD called lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV), which can be viewed as a special class of chlamydial infection -- but LGV is vanishingly rare in the US and Europe, except in gay men. Further, none of these is likely to have occurred in you without symptoms. On top of all that, your commercial sex event was condom protected -- and condoms work. Finally, if syphilis or LGV were the problem, most likely your antibiotics would have cured it. So all those issue argue against any STD, and against any connection between your partner's symptoms and your commercial sex exposure.
Having said that, it would be good to know exactly what infections she was tested for. Also, where are you? The US or elsewhere? I'm a little surprised at corticosteroid treatment. In general, it should be possible to find a specific diagnosis for enlarged/inlamed lymph nodes, and it is atypical to give steroids before then. Such treatment could mask other symptoms that might be a clue, or might interfere with additional diagnostic tests. Not to be too skeptical, however: Her doctor may have a very good reason and I'm just speculating from a distance. But if there is any doubt, this might be a situation for a second opinion by an internal medicine specialist or infectious diseases expert.
In any case, I see no likelihood of an STD. I hope this helps. Best wishes-- HHH, MD
You are reading content posted in the STDs Forum
Herpes spreads by oral, vaginal and anal sex.
Herpes sores blister, then burst, scab and heal.
STIs are the most common cause of genital sores.
Millions of people are diagnosed with STDs in the U.S. each year.
STDs can't be transmitted by casual contact, like hugging or touching.
Syphilis is an STD that is transmitted by oral, genital and anal sex.
