Hello. Your forum is very well-organized, and the answers posted are quite comprehensive. Thank you.
Recently, I exhibited poor judgement. I am a 28yo heterosexual woman with a h/o HPV diagnosed when I was 19 years old, both with an abnormal Pap and with genital warts. Since that time, I have intermittently had abnormal Paps (last 2 were normal, in 6/05 and 6/06), and am currently having my 2nd episode of recurrence of genital warts; I have 3 small warts at the introitus, 2 exterior, one interior. About 3 weeks ago, I entered a monogamous sexual relationship (both vaginal and oral) with a new man; we have used condoms every time we have had sex. Unfortunately, before we engaged in sexual activity, I did not inform him of my diagnosis and active outbreak. Of course, this has, understandably, caused some strife within the relationship. My questions are as follows:
1) Is there any role for vaccination of men with Gardasil in preventing transmission of HPV from infected women to their male partners?
2) Even though he has likely been exposed to and/or is infected with HPV in the past, what is the approximate chance that he will show physical signs of infection (i.e., warts)?
3) I know that the evidence behind oral transmission of HPV is not strong, but do you think he could now have an oral HPV infection as a result of contact with me?
Thank you for your input.