Transmission

[dogwood]

If one were to perform oral sex on a man, and then a few minutes afterwards, use their (i.e., the person who performed the sex) own saliva as a lubricant for masturbation, is there a significant chance of STD infection

[H. Hunter Handsfield, M.D.]

To my knowledge,  no STD or HIV ever has been documented to be transmitted in the indirect way you describe, nor has hand-to-genital contact between partners.  Logic, common sense, and the biology of STD transmission also suggest the risk would be astronomically small.  Don't worry about it.

Most drugs of the fluoroquinolone class are reliable against chlamydia, but not ciprofloxacin.  On the other hand, that is a huge dose and it probably would work.  But reliable data in support of that regimen do not exist.

Good luck--  HHH, MD

[no_va]

does it mean u know for sure that the person HAD chlamydia?

[no_va]

i just got rid of it,chlamydia i mean and i'm never ever going to risk having it again,so i'm just being curious.are you aware that even doctors still haven't got enough information on this,it hasn't really been studied that thoroughly.it really is something to study though.

[no_va]

but,frankly,i don't think you have something to worry about in that particular case,as you describe it,i would though think about what and why i were doing if i were you.for me,personally,chlamydia was quite an experience.also there is something i don't understand.what almost every doctor says is that if one of the partners has it,so does the other.well,obviously at times it's not that easy to transmit,as it seems that there are even family couples where one of them has it and the other does not!This i know for sure as i've discussed it with a doctor who is a specialist STD.But i guess it's time-consuming(and money)to really reserch and no one would benefit from admitting they didn't have enough information!