My fiancee has oral herpes, while I am seronegative for HSV-1.
I know that HSV-1 is not too terrible an affliction, but it is still a great source of anxiety for me, and affects our sex life. I can count on one hand how many times I've allowed him to perform oral sex on me, in the course of 3 years, and even that made me uncomfortable, I cannot enjoy myself because I worry about becoming genitally infected. I feel like I am missing out, but there is a very strong mental block, the anxiety is too strong.
I wonder about infecting myself with HSV-1 intentionally in some innocuous place on the body, by abrading the skin and attempting to transfer the virus. I dont' think this is crazy, as I see it, it is simply a vaccine, not unlike Edward Jenner's cowpox innoculations to ward off smallpox. When I do a cost-benefit analysis, I think this will be able to alleviate my worries, and hepretic whitlow is not too bad of a price to pay.
In addition...the current Herpes vaccine in development is essentially on this same basis (I think)...so that seronegative individuals will have the same moderate protection against HSV-1 and 2 that HSV-1 infected individuals have. Only without physical manifestation. I dont want to wait years for this vaccine, if it is ever aproved.
Now what I have not been able to clear up through my research, is wether having and HSV-1 infection anywhere in my body make me truly immune, or am I still succeptible to another HSV-1 infection elsewhere? Or does this risk only exist in the primary infection before antibodies are built up?
Also...second question...
I was signed up for this herpes vaccine trial, and when my bloodwork came back, I was HSV-1 seronegative but for HSV-2 an indeterminate result was obtained. The blood tests were repeated 3 months later with the same results.
This disqualified me from the study, but the nurse said this 'probably' means i dont have HSV-2.
I have never had any symptoms. How should I interpret the result?