Hello,
I have read a lot of info on trich over the last few days.
My scenerio: my husband and I have been together since '02. I have not been with anyone else since then. In '02, I had a bad pap and my dr said I had HPV. I am 43 with 2 kids. My husband had just left for a combat zone. He has 26 yrs in the military. When we met, we did get tested for various things incl HIV. Both of us were negative. So at the time of this diagnosis, I emailed him and told him the news. He denied having an affair. I called dr back and told him to test the sample as I believed he was wrong. I didnt have HPV even though the type of cancer I had is usually caused by it. I have had 2 clean paps since then. So fast forward to now. My husband is again in a combat zone. He left last July. Over the last year I have felt like I had a reoccuring yeast infection, but I figured it was because of my diabetes and being stressed over the upcoming deployment. So my best guess is I contracted this in the last year/year and a half. At least that is when I started noticing symtoms. Lately, they had become worse. Well, he again is denying doing anything and is using the last 'mistake' as an excuse saying it's the same thing all over again. Per my understanding, this is not the same kind of thing..it's a straight out std, no ifs, ands, or buts.
I tried to question my dr, but she just stated she was required by law to give me the info. Guess she didn't want to get involved in the whole marital part of it.
I was reading another answer you gave on the subject of Trich. You stated "We now know that women can carry trich for many years, and have it show up at a time they are monogamous or not sexually active."
Prior to my current husband, I was in a 13 year relationship. After this and before my current husband, I was involved with one other person. My dr said that if I had trich in the past, it would have showed up on my other paps.
Is there a possibility that I didnt get this from current hubby?