I am actually right eye dominant. Does that necessarily mean that I should see better from that eye? I actually went back to the optom. where I got the glasses and she did another visual acuity test with my glasses on. I was seeing 20/15 out of both eyes according to Snellen chart. She told me to try them another week and come back. Should I tell her the Rx I got from the opthom. so we can compare them? Thank you again Dr. Hagan.
The amount of astigmatism in the RE is inconsequential and too little in amount to cause a difference. There are many factors that go into glasses besides the RX. However I cannot tell you why the LE sees better than the RE. I suggest you ask the ophthalmologist.
Know that most people have a dominant eye that sees better (like people have dominant hand)
JCH MD
Sorry to bring this up again Dr. Hagan, but I have a question to ask. I see great out of my left eye with the Rx from the optom. but my right eye is somewhat blurry when looking at blue led lights and road signs at night. Since the optom. and the opthom. both gave the same correction for astigmatism in OD then could the variance given between axis cause this or would it be something else? Granted I have just found out that before this I had been overRX and I have only been wearing the new glasses for around a week and vision in them has gotten better. I will also note that I had laser surgery for a retinal tear in OD eye around 2.5 mos. ago. Again thank you Dr. Hagan for your quick and helpful responses.
Thank you Dr. Hagan. I thought the two Rx were basically the same. I just wanted to make sure. Thank you again, and may God bless.
The optom is written in "minus cylinders" and the Eye MD in "plus cylinders" It's like weight in pounds or kilograms. There is very little difference in the two glasses and no way I can tell you which you would see better in. Many people would not be able to tell any differance in the two.
JCH MD