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HIV Results Still Leave Me Uncertain
Within the last year (definitely at least 4-5 months ago, not sure of exact date) I was exposed to a promiscuous female who performed unprotected fellatio on me. Never vaginal intercourse. I was subsequently diagnosed at a free clinic with HSV-2. All other STI's came up negative. In addition, within the last two years (between 6-12 months ago) I developed a recurrent anal abscess that developed into an anorectal fistula because I left it untreated, not knowing what it was and because it was painless (I went to a doctor 2 days ago on my university campus who confirmed this diagnosis). I have never had a herpes lesion or outbreak of any sort, and unfortunately I am not certain whether the abscess came before, or after the encounter. I am confirmed healthy in all other areas.
In early-mid September (roughly 4 months ago, at least 1-2 months after these encounters) I was tested HIV- using the OralQuick swab test at a clinic. Yesterday (roughly 4 months after the swab test) I got my blood results back and have luckily also tested HIV-. I am concerned, however, because of how uncommon anorectal fistulas are, and how ~30% of HIV+ patients suffer from them (internet results). I am also drawing correlations between the fact that I developed HSV-2 from oral sex, which is odd but possible if the patient suffered from an HSV-2 oral manifestation like HSV-esophagitis (which, scarily, is most common in HIV+ individuals), or was with another man prior to our encounter (possible, as well). If the woman had lesions in her mouth/throat, and perhaps was also HIV+, and the HSV-2 was transmitted to me this way, is it possible I was exposed to the virus and haven't yet produced the antibodies, despite my negative test results?
Further, is it possible that the abscesses developed as a manifestation of HSV-2? At the moment, I don't want to undergo surgery, and I was told by my doctor that if it is painless then it is something I can live with and manage. He didn't seem too concerned about its superficial appearance. He further gave me a rectal exam to confirm no herpes lesions inside the rectum. He found no signs of lesions or hemorrhoids. He also checked all of my glands and breathing and heart rate and no red flags arose.
I understand this is all to be taken with a grain of salt, as every individual is different and situations like this are not so "black and white." The last time that I did have vaginal intercourse was May 2012, with someone who, as rumors had it, once had chlamydia (although, I believe didn't have it at the time of our encounter). Although it is possible I received HSV-2 from this female, I tested negative for every STI after being with this female, and all were negative (except HSV-2, this test was the free clinic test). It is also possible that the abscesses developed after this encounter as this female was also promiscuous. Could I have gotten Chlamydia from her, and subsequently the recurring anal abscess, but having left the Chlamydia untreated, my body got over it? If so, is it possible that I may suffer infertility?
Any light shed on this situation would be much appreciated. Sorry if it seems convoluted.
In early-mid September (roughly 4 months ago, at least 1-2 months after these encounters) I was tested HIV- using the OralQuick swab test at a clinic. Yesterday (roughly 4 months after the swab test) I got my blood results back and have luckily also tested HIV-. I am concerned, however, because of how uncommon anorectal fistulas are, and how ~30% of HIV+ patients suffer from them (internet results). I am also drawing correlations between the fact that I developed HSV-2 from oral sex, which is odd but possible if the patient suffered from an HSV-2 oral manifestation like HSV-esophagitis (which, scarily, is most common in HIV+ individuals), or was with another man prior to our encounter (possible, as well). If the woman had lesions in her mouth/throat, and perhaps was also HIV+, and the HSV-2 was transmitted to me this way, is it possible I was exposed to the virus and haven't yet produced the antibodies, despite my negative test results?
Further, is it possible that the abscesses developed as a manifestation of HSV-2? At the moment, I don't want to undergo surgery, and I was told by my doctor that if it is painless then it is something I can live with and manage. He didn't seem too concerned about its superficial appearance. He further gave me a rectal exam to confirm no herpes lesions inside the rectum. He found no signs of lesions or hemorrhoids. He also checked all of my glands and breathing and heart rate and no red flags arose.
I understand this is all to be taken with a grain of salt, as every individual is different and situations like this are not so "black and white." The last time that I did have vaginal intercourse was May 2012, with someone who, as rumors had it, once had chlamydia (although, I believe didn't have it at the time of our encounter). Although it is possible I received HSV-2 from this female, I tested negative for every STI after being with this female, and all were negative (except HSV-2, this test was the free clinic test). It is also possible that the abscesses developed after this encounter as this female was also promiscuous. Could I have gotten Chlamydia from her, and subsequently the recurring anal abscess, but having left the Chlamydia untreated, my body got over it? If so, is it possible that I may suffer infertility?
Any light shed on this situation would be much appreciated. Sorry if it seems convoluted.
Thank you for your response, Teak, but I'm hoping Dr. Handsfield can weigh in on this and some of my other concerns as well.
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