Hi Guys, Quick question:
Tested two times (Feb 13 with oraquick advance oral swab, and again on Feb 20 with uni-gold recombigen via fingerprick), 10 months after a non-exposure (condom protected sex) and results came back negative. Was happy of course then the mind started thinking. On December 24 while on vacation with my parents my dad tested my blood sugar and used his lancet pen. He had tested his about 15-20 minutes before me, and he replaced the lancet in the pen before testing me (single shot pen where the lancet has to be changed after each use). I know there is no risk from the actual lancet because it was replaced and I saw it, but what about the end cap---I have heard of hep infections this way but have found no evidence of HIV infection this way (even checked CDC's site). My dad is 65, his wife is a nurse who he's been married to for over 12 years and he hasn't "done-the-do" in over 10 years as a result of heart meds and diabetes. We live in an are where HIV prevalence is low (0.146% or 1-in-684) and there are no cases in people over 50. My negative tests results that I recieved on Feb. 13 and 20 was at 7 weeks 2 days and 8 weeks 2 days after lancet incident. What is my risk for this? I don't believe my dad to have HIV, but you just never know, right? Should I be tested again next week (which will be out of the 3-month window) or should I just MOVE ON? Is this just another "worried well" question?
Thanks guys!!! look forward to your responses!!
-Oh by the way, I worked the numbers and calculated my actual risk for the condom-protected incident which was the reason I was being tested in the first place---accounting for all factors (condom effectiveness at a conservative 95%, area prevalence, etc) my actual risk of being infected was:
0.00000140625% or about a 1-in-100,000,000 of being infected. (hey I'm a worried-well...)