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S Seeminfly Stupid Queston

Folks,

Just a point of clarification when considering the following statement from one of the doctors in the Expert Forum:

"When a woman is infected, the average risk of transmission to her male partners has been calculated at once for every 2,000 episodes of unprotected vaginal sex."

Does this mean that an average person would need to have vaginal sex with an infected person 2,000 times before transmission would likely occur, or does mean your chances are 1/2,000 (0.0005%)?

Thank you in advance for your consideration.
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1119745 tn?1284594652
"When a woman is infected, the average risk of transmission to her male partners has been calculated at once for every 2,000 episodes of unprotected vaginal sex."

It means the latter... That, statistically, each act of unprotected sex carries a 1 in 2000 chance that transmission of the virus will occur.

But do not let the numbers mislead you. Unprotected sex is just that - unprotected. Each and every act of unprotected vaginal or anal intercourse with a person of unknown status warrants testing. Be well.

-B
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Avatar universal
It simply means chances are very very low.
it doesnt mean once every 2000 unprotected sex.
person can get HIV from the first unprotected sex.

Helpful - 0
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