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Avatar universal

Is it legitimate to say other STDs are easier than HIV to spread?

Regarding to my issue. I had sex with prostitute (no registration for sex worker in that country, so maybe dangerous than the CSWs in Europe), with condom.

Now it's a week away from the exposure. I don't have the symptoms of gonorrhea, which is assumed to outbreak after one week from exposure if infected. I assume I haven't got gonorrhae, can I say I haven't got HIV because the likelihood of catching Gonorrhea is higher than HIV in protected sex?

Is there a order of likelihood of infection? e.g Gonorrhea > Chlamydia>syphilis>HIV, correct?
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480448 tn?1426948538
HIV is MUCH more difficult to transmit than other STDs.  They aren't even the same kind of infections.  No sense in putting "numbers" to the risk factors.  For HIV, you had no risk, and obviously, you tested negative for other STD's.  I'd suggest you believe those results.
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Avatar universal
Your not going to find it here or on the STD forum because you had no risk.
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Thank you, I'm not so concerned about HIV, though I confess I am stressed a bit.

I just want to know the basic medical knowledge about the likelihood of each STD.
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The likelihood of catching HIV in protected sex is zero. You should not be concerned about HIV or STDs.
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good question, i dont have either.. but im worried about hiv
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no one's answering? I don't think this is a silly or repeated question.
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