May I ask for a medical provider's input as to the following:
1. Oral exposure. 36 days ago, I performed oral to genital sex on on a woman with HSV2. She was not having an outbreak at the time. She was diagnosed 5.5 years ago. Question: I'm concerned about the risk for exposure. Dr. Leone says it's 99% impossible to transfer genital HSV2 to the mouth. But Dr. Handsfield does not seem to echo that same position in his posts. Should I assume this is a part of the 4% transmission to male, over a year period when no outbreaks? I have not seen any oral symptoms except chapped lips, which goes away with moisturizer. If there was transmission, how likely would it be to be asymptomatic 36 days out? If I had symptoms, would I know it?
2. Vaginal intercourse, without a condom 21 days ago, while the woman was on her period (3 x over a 12 hour period). The woman was on Valtrex at the time for 9 days prior. She noticed a "small bump" 9 days prior, took Valtrex and it was gone by 6 days prior. I have not seen any genital symptoms. 11 days ago I had a blood test that was negative for both HSV 1 & 2. Question: I'm concerned about the risk for exposure, especially since she was on her period. Should I assume this is a part of the 4% transmission to male, over a year period when no outbreaks?, then reduce it to 2% since on Valtrex, then increase it to 3% since she was having her period? So is it fair to say that if I were to do this 2x/week for a year, my risk would be 3%?
3. Have you ever heard of a case where someone got HSV-2 from the above facts?
Thank you.