There is a risk for the giver of unprotected oral sex to a female infected with HSV2. There is also a risk for a male having protected vaginal sex with that same HSV2-infected female. I'm curious whether one carries more risk than the other.
Said a different way, if I accept the risk of acquiring HSV2 from a female through protected vaginal sex, am I at more, less, or similar risk of acquiring HSV2 by giving her unprotected oral sex?
I know from studies cited here that the risk of a female transmitting HSV2 to a male is something like 1-4% over a year, assuming no sex during outbreaks and sex twice per week, or so. So, I'm looking to compare the risk of transmission from the female to the male, orally.