no difference between using valtrex and acyclovir for suppressive therapy. valtrex is less pills a day. acyclovir is cheaper.
sex isn't a typical trigger for folks though certainly dryness during sex that causes "trauma" to your genital area could trigger a recurrence . hope that makes sense.
his risk in the course of an entire year is only 4% if you only avoided sex when you had symptoms and took no other precautions. the risk per sex act is minuscule.
grace
Thanks. So is better than acyclovir as a suppressive treatment? Also, does having sex trigger outbreaks?
And what is the percentage chance if you know that it was transmitted to him if the condom broke?
Thanks for your help! : )
no he has no idea what he is talking about :( You don' t become immune to valtrex by taking it long term. we have info on the herpes antivirals used suppressively for almost 25 years now ( acyclovir ) and the rates of resistance are the same as they were prior to their use for herpes.
no, his having herpes wouldn't have triggered a recurrence in you. was most likely coincidence more than anything.
if this red spot doesn't clear up, follow up on it properly with your provider.
grace
I think it started getting red in the spot I get it in (above pubic hair line) the next day after having sex with him or the day after that, I continued taking the valtrex and it never turned into anything it just was red for about a week.
Sorry for all the details here I'm just trying to get an accurate answer...
Also, I hadn't had an outbreak since around June, upon that outbreak I started taking the valtrex. The last month I ran out and didnt take them for two weeks. I began to take them again for the next 2 weeks and then had sex using a condom with a guy. The condom broke. I had no sign of an outbreak until 3 days after having sex with him. Could this mean that he also had herpes and it triggered an outbreak?
Why did I get an outbreak when I had been taking valtrex for 2 weeks?
Thanks,
Jess