Yes I do think you will be negative, based on the low chance of transmission, an existing oral HSV1 infection and a 12 week negative.
Note that having an oral HSV1 infection gives you not just some immunity from a further oral infection, but nearly complete! Research is variable as to whether an oral HSV1 infection provides you with some genital protection from HSV2 as well.
Even if the outbreak was herpes related, it most likely would have been HSV1, potentially triggered by the stress of the circumstance.
When do you get the results? Take them as conclusive for your HSV2 status.
Also, I haven't had any sexual encounters since, only kissing. Do you think I can expect a negative result?
Thank you! My situation was giving a man oral sex who later told me he was having a genital hsv2 outbreak at the time. What a horrible person, right? A week later I got two "breakouts" around my mouth, if that's what they were. They were near the corners of my mouth and seem to resemble angular chilitis more than anything! I got tested exactly 12 weeks and 1 day after this and was negative for hsv2 and positive for hsv1 which I already knew from childhood. I guess most factors play against me being infected, like no obvious symptoms that suggest herpes, oral hsv2 being rare, and having slight protection due to hsv1 already...right? I got tested 6 months post encounter and am awaiting my results. All of this happened this mast March
A false positive, which will generally mean a low positive, happens in a few percent of tests undertaken; I've seen suggestions of about 5% of tests. These can happen to an individual that doesn't have herpes at any time; there is no relevance of weeks since exposure for HSV negative people.
I don't feel this is terribly relevant as if you become low positive at 16 weeks then another test is required as the uncertainty as to whether you were infected or not would be high. As you'd be on the 4 month mark, a Westernblot would be a consideration.
What's more common? A 12 week false negative or a 16 week false positive? Also, does having symptoms promote the production of antibodies, therefore making a 12 week test result to be more conclusive?
Hi, if a person tests negative at 12 weeks and positive at 16 weeks its either a new infection that occured after the 12 weeks or the 12th week one was a false negative or the 16th week was a false positive. In this case retest using the Western Blot.
Can someone help to answer this please? Thanks