I have read many posts here but I am having a hard time trying to find the answer to my question. Here is my situation and I will try to be brief.
My last possible Herpes 2 (or any STD) exposure was over 6 years ago back in 2001. Due to some genital symptoms (redness, irritation, a "pimple" in the public hair area) I was tested for herpes in 2006 and again in 2007 and 2008. Here are my test results:
12/06: HSV 1: .55 (negative), HSV 2: .01 (negative)
12/07: HSV 1: .98 (equivocal), HSV 2: .04 (negative)
2/08: HSV 1: .70 (negative), HSV 2: .03 (negative)
On the onset I know it looks like I am HSV 1 and 2 negative, but my sexual past would tell me otherwise. I had a few partners and condoms were mostly not used. This would leave me to believe that I was at high risk for contracting HSV 2. Back in 2005 I was diagnosed with high-risk HPV.
I have read in past posts that about 5% of people with herpes do no produced antibodies. My questions, thus, are:
1) Why? What causes these people to not produce anitbodies to HSV (i.e. are there specific medical conditions that these people have?)
2) If someone does not produce antibodies to the herpes virus and they have it, will they also not produce antibodies to other viruses?
3) My greatest fear is in regards to HIV. I have been tested many times over the past 6 years and all have been negative, but what if I don't produce antibodies to HSV and HIV?
4) Could something in my immune system cause me to not produce antibodies to HSV and possibly HIV? Or is the ELISA for HIV more accurate than the ELISA for Herpes?
Again, I would like to stress that I was surprised when the nurse told me I was negative to both HSV 1 and 2. I thought for sure I had one or both (given my past) even though I have not had any typical symptoms.
Thank you very much for answering my post. I would be very interested to hear what you have to say. Thanks!!