My daughter is almost 3, and I started her off on trainer diapers so that she could practise taking off her diaper and go to the toilet. She is happy to use the toilet for a number 1. But always does her number 2's in her diaper. One Saturday morning 5 weeks ago she did a number 2 in her diaper and it was a huge palava. as she started taking off her diaper and it was a mess everywhere. In the confusing mess, I never thought to wash my hands as I usually do. In the mess her rolling around, my finger accidentally went between her vagina lips, I wasn't having an outbreak, but hadn't washed my hands. To be blunt, 12 hours before this I masturbated. Then we awoke early and my daughter insisted we go out to swing. It is winter here( southern hemisphere and was quite cold) I pushed her on the swing for 5 minutes then we went inside and the diaper debacle started. I grabbed wet wipes and had successfully wiped off lots of excretement so my hands had been through a lot since the masturbation 12 hrs earlier. It had been cold, then wet wiped. Then, my finger touched her vagina. I felt sick as I realised it had happened. But then brushed it off. 5 days later she had a fever and blocked nose and throat infection.no signs of outbreak. My mother took her to doctor, she was put on anti biotite and within 1 day was her normal self. Now 4 weeks later she has fever again, blocked nose and cough. But no sign of outbreak. No sign of irritation between her legs. My question is. Could she be having flu type symptoms with no physical visible outbreak, but the flu symptoms are being caused by the hsv2 virus. I am fretting. Pls can I have some one thing in my favour is that in my household we all have flu at the moment, and so do many of the guys I work with. Let's assume that maybe I was having an outbreak 5 weeks ago, mild and unnoticeable to me. Statistically speaking, what do you think are the chances that I have infected my daughter.