I've been diagnosed with MS June 2009. I am only 28 years old and this diagnosis is only 4 months old to me, so here goes...... Following an inital episode of optic neurits in my right eye and had 3 days of IV steroids. 5 Weeks later opthalmology check up, optic neuritis was noted in left eye, more steriods followed by a definte diagnosis, commenced copaxone.
My MRI read as follows:There are multiple high signal foci on FLAIR images in a periventricular and collasal distribution some have finger-like morpholgy "Dawsons Fingers". High signal on FLAIR imaging within the body and splenum of the corpus callosum itself. Laregst focus of high signal is in the left occipital lobe adjacent to the posterior horn of the lateral ventricle. Small illdefined signal of foccin int the cerebellar punducles bilaterally and left pons.
Is this normal for an inital diagnosis of MS?, because in hindsight I've been complaining of MS-type symtpms for at least 5 years. My biggest concern at the moment is fasciculations I'm having mainly in my left leg, around my ankle which are visable and only present when I am resting my leg. I have felt them since the day of diagnosis but its only in the last 2 weeks I realised I could actually see the twitching. I've been very laid back and assumed twiching was part of "healing process" to the damaged nerves. Is there anything on my MRI (above) to suggest cause of this problem? and do I need to bring it to my neurologists attention as I am doing well on copaxone and not schedualed to see him for another 5 months? Is it possible MS is not the diagnosis?
All help and advice is so appreciated.