A false positive or a strange coincidence?

[Betrayed99]

Two days ago, my husband confessed that he paid a prostitute for unprotected oral sex approximately 2 1/2-3 weeks ago.  About a week or so ago, I felt discomfort, itching and irritation in my vagina.  I checked myself and was alarmed to see heavy greenish, non-odorous discharge.  It wasn't curdled like a yeast infection, and it definitely did not have any foul smell to it.  I asked my husband if he'd had any genitourinary issues, and he admitted that yes, he'd been having mild dysuria but no discharge.  His symptoms had started a few days before mine.  The last time my husband and I had intercourse was a few days after he had committed his indiscretion, just prior to his symptoms manifesting and most certainly way before I knew he had betrayed me.

Because I had been suspecting my husband of having an affair with a mutual acquaintance, I went immediately to my doctor who ordered full STD testing and prescribed a 7 day course of metronidazole, a shot of ceftriaxone, and a 10-day course of doxycycline because she said to her it appeared like gonorrhea.  I immediately sent my husband in for the same battery of tests.  He got only a 7 day course of doxycycline.  I know he'd admitted to the prostitute's fellatio to his doctor, and that based on whatever he reported, the doctor made the most logical choice in treatment... My question is as follows:

All our test results came back negative for everything, gonorrhea, chlamydia, trichomoniasis, Hep C., HIV, syphilis, etc.  However, my husband is still experiencing discomfort, and so am I.  While the discharge has diminished in my case, I still have near constant irritation and itching.  I have never had such signs and symptoms before.  I am a medical student, and everything I experienced during this ordeal seemed to match what my textbooks and differential diagnostic procedures indicated was gonorrhea.  My doctor even seemed quite certain and sorry for me after the pelvic exam.  Is it possible that both my husband and my tests are false positives?

I realize that is quite a long shot, and I should be glad they are negative... I am having a difficult time accepting the betrayal and for all these symptoms that are *still* lingering to have been some strange coincidence that brought the whole sordid affair to light.  It just seems oddly unlikely that he could have unprotected oral sex from a prostitute, get itching and burning a few days later, and then a few days later still that I should develop STD-like symptoms without actually having acquired one at all.

Is there another explanation for these events?  I am desperate for an answer.  I not only have to consider how I am going to deal with my unfaithful spouse, but I also have to ensure that I am taking every precaution and care to be absolutely clear of any infections.  I have decided that I will go back in a few months to have the HIV test done again, just in case.


I thank you all in advance for any guidance you could offer.

[gracefromHHP]

I think it's best to err on the side of caution and cover all your bases at the proper times. I'd wait a full week and if you are still having itching and/or discharge, return to be seen again for retesting for yeast and bacterial infections vaginally.  you have to wait at least 6 weeks after you last had sex for syphilis testing and 3 months for herpes, hiv and hepatitis testing.    we don't have commercially available testing for hpv to properly cover either of your hpv risks.  you already suspected your spouse of not being faithful, don't be naive and assume this was a one time encounter and only receiving oral sex.

ngu is basically an uti.  basic urine testing would detect signs of infection in your spouse.

make sure if your spouse's symptoms don't clear up in a week he returns for more testing as well as a manual exam of his prostate.  

grace

[Betrayed99]

Thank you for your comment.  I had swabs and blood tests, my husband had urine, swab, and blood tests as well. I realize how improbable that both sets of tests would be false negatives, but I can't help the feeling we may have overlooked another possibility.

Seeing how we ruled out the most common STDs with similar clinical presentations: vaginal discharge and discomfort/irritation in a female and dysuria and inflammed urethra in a male, could there have been something else that would have affected my husband first, and me later?

I have seen mentions of "NGU" randomly across the net, and I am afraid I am not that knowledgeable of this... my husband claims he received ONLY fellatio... this is probably a stupid question, but can a prostitute carry  U. urealyticum, H. vaginalis, or M. genitalium in her mouth?  I am not sure whether we were tested for these, in which case, will we be okay with the doxycycline we were given?

Thanks again in advance.

[Life360_Dave]

Hi and welcome. not likely both of you had false negative but possible. It also depends on what kind of testing was done and of what nature. Urine, swab or blood. Your level of discomfort depends on how long ago you started the regiment. Ususally takes a week for symptoms to subside and often may take a few trips back for medications. If infact you had an infection in the urethra, urinating toxins can cause inflamation to an already inflamed urethra. If your still having discomfort it would be best to contact your doctor for guidance.

[Betrayed99]

Correction, I meant to say "False Negatives", not positives.