Thank you for your attention and for providing this resource.
I’m a 30-year-old male virgin whose only exposure was recent outercourse with another male, apparently in his 40s, of dubious status (promiscuous). The transaction went as follows:
Dry-humping with my boxers on for around a minute while the other party (naked) masturbated himself;
I deposited hospital-grade hand sanitizer (70% ethanol with added moisturisers) into his hand and observed as he applied it (no handwash in his shower room (!));
Without warning, he then put his hand into my boxer shorts and pressed a finger near my anus, touching my anal fissure for a few seconds. The fissure was irritated from multiple bowel movements hours before but had not bled. I winced and he quickly moved his finger to my actual anus for a few seconds longer (without penetration) before withdrawing;
Mutual masturbation leading to orgasm in his case but not in mine.
There was no direct genital-to-genital contact/frottage or transfer of sexual fluids (even his orgasm was dry). I understand from these forums that most of this behaviour was not risky, but what perturbs me is studies indicating that HPV DNA concentration is high in the penile shaft (I thought it was mucosal skin only, i.e. the penis head) and that this is impervious to alcohol. The unanticipated, albeit brief, contact with my fissure has left me anxious since it would potentially offer access to any residual HPV DNA on his hands to my anus’s basement membrane, potentially establishing infection.
Can I ask how you would evaluate the risk of sanitized hand-to-genital contact without fluid exchange? I despair that I have potentially allowed for a risk to my health because of poor forethought and communication on my part (not to mention the other party’s poor hygiene).