In early Dec-07, I started having redness and itching on the glans and the prepuce, and excessive formation of smegma. This happens to me if I haven't cleaned for a few days properly (though I normally clean everyday). At first I thought it was one such, but when it didn't go with cleaning I showed a doctor. He thought it was possibly a fungal infection and suggested an ointment having Clotrimazole as the active ingredient. The redness and itching disappeared after applying for a week and so I stopped the application. After a few days, the problem returned, this time with painful lesions. I went to the urologist this time and he suspected HSV2. He prescribed Acyclovir 800mg 3 times a day for 4 days, and on the 3rd day he performed a biopsy by taking a small amount of tissue from the prepuce so as to type the virus. He also suggest IgG and IgM test. Tests came negative. Biopsy did not find the virus, but did note "viral cytopathological changes". The doctor prescribed Acyclovir 400mg 3 times a day for 6 weeks. The "infection" or whatever it was had subsided after the initial dosage of 800mg 3 times a day, but I continued the medication for the 6 weeks. A month after stopping the medication, in late April-08, the red spots returned, though not yet painful or itchy. I went back to the urologist. He suspected a recurrence, and prescribed Acyclovir 400mg 3 times a day for a week. The problem subsided and he has now prescribed a prophylactic dosage of Acyclovir 400mg 1 time daily for the next 6 months. At random, the red spots on the glans and prepuce keep reappearing for a day or so. The urologist claims that as long as there is no pain or itchiness, there is nothing to worry.
My points of confusion are:
1. Is this really Herpes? I haven't had sex since Jul-06 (it's true!) - no intercourse, no oral, no skin-contact, no nothing. So how then can I have an HSV2 lesion in Dec-07? I've had this discussion with my urologist, but he does not have an answer.
2. What is the red spots that keep reappearing, and why?
3. The doctor says that if there are no sores, and if the IgG and IgM tests for myself and spouse are negative, we can go ahead and plan a pregnancy. Is this correct? Is it advisable?
All of this is quite confusing. Answers will be greatly appreciated!