I have been in a monogamous sexual relationship with a woman since the beginning of 2018. About 2 months ago she was informed that she had tested positive for syphillis and that she had been infected in 2018.
I had very definitive stage one and two syphillis symptoms that i recall earlier this year around march/april. I have been treated for this recently and was told by my clinician my date of infection was more than likely just prior to my initial stage one symptoms. I was also told that there was no definitive way for them to determine the date of infection.
So how is it her clinician can know when she was infected and mine cannot?
The reason this is relevant to me is because i am being accused of infecting her based on this information provided by her clinician.. information that my clinician cannot provide to me.